ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Apply the patch to a different site each day.
- B. Remove the patch at bedtime each day.
- C. Apply the patch over an area with little or no hair.
- D. Keep the patch on for 24 hours at a time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove it each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time can lead to tolerance development. Applying the patch to a different site each day is not necessary, as long as the area is rotated to prevent skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair is not a critical instruction for the Nitroglycerin patch.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?
- A. Serum potassium.
- B. Serum sodium.
- C. Serum chloride.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.
3. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The client should be monitored for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia is characterized by elevated levels of potassium in the blood, which can be dangerous and lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyperkalemia is crucial when a client is taking spironolactone. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not known to cause hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypercalcemia as adverse effects.
4. A client with heart failure is receiving instructions about laxative use. The client should be advised to avoid which of the following laxatives?
- A. Sodium phosphate
- B. Psyllium
- C. Bisacodyl
- D. Polyethylene glycol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with heart failure often have sodium restrictions. Sodium phosphate can lead to fluid retention due to sodium absorption, which is harmful for individuals with heart failure. Therefore, it should be avoided in this population to prevent exacerbating fluid overload. Psyllium, Bisacodyl, and Polyethylene glycol are safer options for individuals with heart failure as they do not pose the risk of exacerbating fluid overload through sodium retention.
5. A healthcare provider in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings are indicative of this condition?
- A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
- B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
- C. Severe pain around the eyes
- D. Intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a characteristic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is typically accompanied by other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. The acute rise in intraocular pressure leads to these symptoms, indicating a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more suggestive of conditions like age-related macular degeneration or diabetic retinopathy. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12mm Hg is within the normal range and not indicative of the acute rise seen in angle-closure glaucoma.
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