Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime each day.
• C. Apply the patch over an area with little or no hair.
• D. Keep the patch on for 24 hours at a time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove it each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time can lead to tolerance development. Applying the patch to a different site each day is not necessary, as long as the area is rotated to prevent skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair is not a critical instruction for the Nitroglycerin patch.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who came to the clinic for a seasonal influenza immunization. The healthcare provider should identify that which of the following clients is a candidate to receive the vaccine via nasal spray rather than an injection?

• A. 1-year-old with no health problems
• B. 17-year-old with a hypersensitivity to Penicillin
• C. 25-year-old who is pregnant
• D. 52-year-old who takes a multivitamin supplement

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A 17-year-old can be immunized for influenza with the LAIV via nasal spray. A hypersensitivity to penicillin is not a contraindication for an influenza immunization. Nasal spray influenza vaccine is generally recommended for healthy individuals between 2 and 49 years old. Choices A, C, and D are not candidates for nasal spray influenza vaccine. A 1-year-old is too young, pregnant individuals should not receive the nasal spray, and age is a factor for the use of the nasal spray vaccine.

3. A patient is receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis and begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Vitamin K1
• B. Atropine
• C. Protamine
• D. Calcium gluconate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its anticoagulant effects. In cases of heparin overdose or if there is excessive bleeding, administering protamine can quickly neutralize the effects of heparin, helping to prevent further bleeding complications.

4. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Prednisone?

• A. Cushing’s disease
• B. Testicular cancer
• C. Lymphomas
• D. Chronic leukemias

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prednisone is not a common treatment for testicular cancer. Prednisone is used in conditions like Cushing’s disease, lymphomas, and chronic leukemias due to its anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive properties. However, testicular cancer treatment typically involves surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy, but not Prednisone.

5. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Monitor your heart rate regularly.
• C. Avoid consuming foods high in potassium.
• D. Increase your fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your heart rate regularly.' Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia (slow heart rate). Monitoring the heart rate regularly is crucial to promptly detect any significant decreases. This allows for timely intervention and adjustment of the medication regimen if needed, helping to prevent adverse effects associated with bradycardia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning does not address the need for heart rate monitoring. Avoiding foods high in potassium is more relevant for medications like ACE inhibitors or potassium-sparing diuretics. Increasing fluid intake is not directly related to the use of Atenolol.

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