a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patch which of the following instructions should t
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology

1. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove it each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time can lead to tolerance development. Applying the patch to a different site each day is not necessary, as long as the area is rotated to prevent skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair is not a critical instruction for the Nitroglycerin patch.

2. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range and puts a client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, especially in older clients taking Digoxin, as potassium plays a crucial role in the heart's electrical activity. Choices A and B are related to calcium levels, which do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Choice D, Potassium 4.8 mEq/L, is within the expected reference range and would not increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can interact with Fentanyl causing severe sedation when administered concurrently. This is due to the additive central nervous system depressant effects of both medications, which can lead to excessive sedation, respiratory depression, and other serious adverse effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals need to monitor clients closely for signs of excessive sedation or respiratory depression when administering these medications together.

4. What is the therapeutic class of Valproate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Valproate belongs to the therapeutic class of anticonvulsants. It is primarily used to manage seizures but is also effective in treating vascular headaches. Therefore, it is not classified as an anticoagulant, antianxiety medication, or mood stabilizer. Option A, anticoagulant, is incorrect as valproate does not have anticoagulant properties. Option B, antianxiety benzodiazepines, is incorrect as valproate is not primarily used to treat anxiety disorders with benzodiazepines. Option D, mood stabilizer, is incorrect as valproate is not classified as a mood stabilizer, although it can be used in some cases for mood disorders, its primary therapeutic class is anticonvulsant.

5. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin. The nurse should identify that the concurrent use of which of the following medications increases the client's risk of bleeding?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Acetaminophen (Choice C). Acetaminophen, especially in high doses, can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking Warfarin. It can potentiate the anticoagulant effect of Warfarin, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Vitamin K (Choice A) is actually used to reverse the effects of Warfarin in case of over-anticoagulation, so it does not increase the risk of bleeding. Calcium carbonate (Choice B) and Ranitidine (Choice D) do not significantly interact with Warfarin to increase the risk of bleeding.

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