ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, what should the healthcare provider monitor the client's urine for?
- A. Bilirubin
- B. Protein
- C. Potassium
- D. Calcium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring urine for calcium is essential. Somatropin can lead to increased calcium levels in the urine, potentially increasing the risk of renal calculi formation. Therefore, assessing for calcium in the urine helps in early detection and prevention of this complication. Monitoring for bilirubin, protein, or potassium in the urine is not directly related to the effects of Somatropin and would not provide relevant information in this context.
2. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Insomnia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause xerostomia (dry mouth) due to its effect on reducing salivary flow. Monitoring for dry mouth is important as it can lead to oral health issues and discomfort for the client. Diarrhea, insomnia, and hypertension are not typically associated with clonidine use, making them less likely adverse effects to monitor for in this scenario.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Spironolactone to a client. Which of the following laboratory results should the professional review before administering this medication?
- A. Serum potassium.
- B. Serum sodium.
- C. Serum chloride.
- D. Serum calcium.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When administering Spironolactone, it is essential to monitor the client's serum potassium levels because Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Monitoring potassium levels helps to detect hyperkalemia, a potential adverse effect of the medication.
4. A client with angina asks about obtaining a prescription for sildenafil to treat erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with Sildenafil?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Isosorbide
- C. Clopidogrel
- D. Atorvastatin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Isosorbide is an organic nitrate used to manage angina. Concurrent use of sildenafil with organic nitrates, like isosorbide, is contraindicated due to the risk of fatal hypotension. It is essential for clients to avoid taking nitrate medications within 24 hours of using isosorbide to prevent serious complications.
5. A client with breast cancer is being taught by a nurse about the adverse effects of chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding.
- B. You should avoid contact with individuals who recently received live virus vaccines.
- C. You should take aspirin for minor aches and pains.
- D. You should consume a diet low in protein to reduce the risk of renal damage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding, which can occur due to chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia. Chemotherapy can decrease platelet counts, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush can help prevent gum bleeding and oral trauma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding contact with individuals who recently received live virus vaccines is crucial to prevent infections in immunocompromised clients. Aspirin should be avoided due to its blood-thinning effects that can increase the risk of bleeding. A diet low in protein is not recommended as cancer clients often require adequate protein intake for healing and recovery.
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