a nurse is caring for a client who is taking oral oxycodone the client states he is also taking ibuprofen in three recommended doses daily the nurse s
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A client is taking oral Oxycodone and Ibuprofen in recommended doses. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When Oxycodone, a narcotic analgesic, and Ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), are taken together, they work synergistically to enhance the pain-relieving effects of both medications. These drugs act through different mechanisms, leading to a combined analgesic effect that is more effective than when used alone. Therefore, the interaction between Oxycodone and Ibuprofen results in an increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications.

2. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Visual disturbances, such as blurred or yellow vision, can be an early sign of digoxin toxicity. Monitoring for visual changes is crucial to detect and prevent potential adverse effects of digoxin. Dry cough, confusion, and urinary retention are not commonly associated adverse effects of digoxin and are not typically monitored in relation to this medication.

3. A healthcare professional is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase intake of foods high in potassium.' Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause potassium depletion. The healthcare professional should instruct the client to increase the intake of foods high in potassium to prevent hypokalemia, a potential side effect of Furosemide therapy. Choice A is incorrect as Furosemide is usually recommended to be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia. Choice C is unrelated to the side effects of Furosemide. Choice D, while important for overall health, is not directly related to the side effects of Furosemide.

4. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

5. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.

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