Nursing Elites

1. What are the expected ECG changes in hypokalemia?

• A. Flattened T waves
• B. ST elevation
• C. Wide QRS complex
• D. Tall T waves

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are the most common ECG change seen in patients with hypokalemia. Hypokalemia leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. This results in T wave flattening or inversion. ST elevation is typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Wide QRS complex is more associated with hyperkalemia than hypokalemia. Tall T waves are often seen in hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia.

2. A client has a right-sided pneumothorax, and a chest tube is inserted. Which finding indicates that the chest drainage system is functioning correctly?

• A. Gentle bubbling in the suction chamber
• B. Crepitus around the insertion site
• C. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber
• D. Absence of breath sounds on the right side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a chest drainage system, gentle bubbling in the suction chamber indicates proper functioning, showing that the system is connected and working effectively to remove air or fluid from the pleural space. Crepitus around the insertion site (Choice B) suggests subcutaneous emphysema, not chest tube functionality. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber (Choice C) indicates an air leak. Absence of breath sounds on the right side (Choice D) is indicative of the pneumothorax, not the chest tube function.

3. What is the first action when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?

• A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
• B. Clamp the chest tube
• C. Replace the chest tube system
• D. Continue monitoring the chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the first action should be to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step is crucial as it can often resolve an air leak causing continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the chest tube system would not address the underlying issue of loose connections and may not be necessary. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications if the air leak is not addressed promptly.

4. What lab value should be monitored in a patient with HIV?

• A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
• B. Serum albumin levels
• C. Hemoglobin levels
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it indicates the level of immunocompromise. A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3 signifies severe immunosuppression and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Serum albumin levels (choice B) are important for nutritional status assessment but not specific to HIV monitoring. Hemoglobin levels (choice C) are important for assessing anemia but do not directly reflect HIV disease progression. White blood cell count (choice D) is a general marker of inflammation and infection, but monitoring CD4 T-cell count is more specific and crucial in managing HIV.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who reports a possible exposure to HIV. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider identify as an early manifestation of HIV infection?

• A. Stomatitis
• B. Fatigue
• C. Wasting syndrome
• D. Lipodystrophy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Fatigue.' Early manifestations of HIV infection often include symptoms like fatigue, fever, and rash, which are typical of viral infections. Stomatitis (choice A) refers to inflammation of the mouth and lips, which can occur in HIV but is not specific to early infection. Wasting syndrome (choice C) and lipodystrophy (choice D) are more commonly associated with later stages of HIV infection rather than early manifestations.

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