a client has a transient ischemic attack tia what should the nurse teach

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 2

1. A client has a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA). What should the nurse teach?

A. Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime
B. Consume liquids between meals
C. Eat large meals to increase caloric intake
D. Avoid liquids to prevent aspiration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime. For a client with a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA), it is crucial to avoid eating within 3 hours of bedtime to reduce reflux that can worsen symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because consuming liquids between meals is not specifically related to managing TIA. Choice C is incorrect as eating large meals may not be recommended, especially if the client needs to watch their caloric intake. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding liquids entirely can lead to dehydration and is not a standard recommendation for TIA management.

2. What dietary recommendations should be provided for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?

A. Reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
B. Increase sodium intake
C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
D. Limit potassium-rich foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to reduce phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excessive phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as the kidneys may not be able to effectively remove it from the body. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for patients with kidney disease as it can lead to fluid retention and high blood pressure. Restricting protein intake is important in later stages of kidney disease, but for pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease, protein intake should be individualized based on the patient's condition. Limiting potassium-rich foods is more relevant for patients with advanced kidney disease or those on dialysis, as impaired kidney function can lead to high potassium levels in the blood.

3. What is the priority lab value for monitoring a patient with HIV?

A. CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3
B. Serum albumin levels
C. White blood cell count
D. Hemoglobin levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm3. Monitoring the CD4 T-cell count is crucial in patients with HIV as it serves as a key indicator of immune function. A count below 180 cells/mm3 indicates severe immunocompromise and an increased risk of opportunistic infections. Choice B, serum albumin levels, though important for assessing nutritional status, is not the priority lab value for HIV monitoring. Choice C, white blood cell count, is a nonspecific measure of immune function and may not accurately reflect the status of the immune system in HIV patients. Choice D, hemoglobin levels, are essential for evaluating anemia but are not the primary lab value for monitoring HIV.

4. What should the healthcare provider do if a patient presents with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome?

A. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Administer aspirin
C. Obtain cardiac enzymes
D. Get IV access and auscultate heart sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the priority action in the treatment of chest pain in acute coronary syndrome. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart and relieving chest pain. Aspirin can also be given to reduce clot formation, but nitroglycerin takes precedence in providing immediate relief. Obtaining cardiac enzymes and assessing heart sounds are important steps in the diagnostic process but do not address the immediate need to relieve chest pain and prevent cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, administering sublingual nitroglycerin is the most appropriate initial intervention for a patient presenting with chest pain and possible acute coronary syndrome.

5. A nurse misreads a blood glucose level and administers excess insulin. What should the nurse monitor for?

A. Monitor for hyperglycemia
B. Monitor for hypoglycemia
C. Administer glucose IV
D. Monitor for increased thirst

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for hypoglycemia. Excess insulin can lead to low blood glucose levels, causing hypoglycemia. Symptoms of hypoglycemia include sweating, trembling, dizziness, confusion, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because administering excess insulin would not lead to hyperglycemia or increased thirst, and administering glucose IV would exacerbate the issue by further lowering blood glucose levels.