ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What is the purpose of an escharotomy in burn management?
- A. To relieve pressure and improve circulation in burn injuries
- B. To remove necrotic tissue from a wound
- C. To prevent infection in burn injuries
- D. To remove excess fluid from burn wounds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An escharotomy is performed to relieve pressure in areas affected by deep burns and improve circulation. This procedure involves making incisions through the eschar (burned and dead tissue) to release constricting tissue and allow for the return of blood flow. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of necrotic tissue is typically done through debridement, not escharotomy. Choice C is incorrect because preventing infection in burn injuries is usually achieved through proper wound care and antibiotic therapy, not escharotomy. Choice D is incorrect because removing excess fluid from burn wounds is managed through methods like fluid resuscitation and monitoring, not escharotomy.
2. A home health nurse is providing teaching to the family of a client who has a seizure disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Keep a padded tongue depressor near the bedside
- B. Place a pillow under the client's head during a seizure
- C. Administer diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures
- D. Position the client on their side during a seizure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who has a seizure disorder is to position the client on their side during a seizure. This helps to prevent aspiration and ensures a patent airway. Keeping a padded tongue depressor near the bedside (Choice A) is not recommended as it can cause injury during a seizure. Placing a pillow under the client's head during a seizure (Choice B) is also not advised as it can obstruct the airway. Administering diazepam intravenously at the onset of seizures (Choice C) is not typically done at home without healthcare provider direction.
3. What are the early symptoms of compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized redness and swelling
- C. Fever and swelling
- D. Numbness and tingling
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness.' Compartment syndrome is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to reduced blood flow and potential tissue damage. Early symptoms include unrelieved pain (out of proportion to the injury), pallor (pale skin color), and pulselessness (decreased or absent pulses). Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent the classic early symptoms of compartment syndrome.
4. What is the first action when continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber?
- A. Tighten the connections of the chest tube system
- B. Clamp the chest tube
- C. Replace the chest tube system
- D. Continue monitoring the chest tube
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When continuous bubbling is observed in the chest tube water seal chamber, the first action should be to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step is crucial as it can often resolve an air leak causing continuous bubbling. Clamping the chest tube or replacing the chest tube system would not address the underlying issue of loose connections and may not be necessary. Continuing to monitor the chest tube without taking corrective action may lead to complications if the air leak is not addressed promptly.
5. What is the primary concern in a patient with a low CD4 T-cell count in HIV?
- A. Increased risk of infection
- B. Increased risk of bleeding
- C. Decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections
- D. Increased risk of cardiac complications
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. In HIV patients with a low CD4 T-cell count, the primary concern is the increased susceptibility to infections due to compromised immunity. This compromised immune system can lead to various infections, making infection control crucial. Choice B, increased risk of bleeding, is not directly associated with a low CD4 count in HIV. Option C, decreased immunity leading to opportunistic infections, conveys a similar concern as the correct answer but lacks specificity. Choice D, increased risk of cardiac complications, is not typically the primary concern in HIV patients with a low CD4 count, as infections and opportunistic diseases pose more immediate threats to health.
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