ATI RN
ATI Capstone Medical Surgical Assessment 1 Quizlet
1. What is the primary concern for a patient with a CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³?
- A. Increased risk of severe infection
- B. Increased risk of anemia
- C. Increased risk of bleeding
- D. Increased risk of dehydration
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A CD4 T-cell count below 180 cells/mm³ indicates a severely immunocompromised state, leading to an increased risk of severe infection. In individuals with low CD4 counts, the immune system is significantly weakened, making them more susceptible to opportunistic infections. Anemia (choice B), bleeding (choice C), and dehydration (choice D) are not the primary concerns associated with a low CD4 T-cell count. While these conditions may occur as secondary effects or complications, the primary focus is on preventing and managing severe infections in patients with severely compromised immune systems.
2. What should be the first medication given for wheezing due to an allergic reaction?
- A. Albuterol via nebulizer
- B. Cromolyn via nebulizer
- C. Methylprednisolone IV
- D. Aminophylline 500 mg IV
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Albuterol via nebulizer. Albuterol is the first-line medication for treating wheezing caused by an allergic reaction as it works as a bronchodilator, helping to relieve the symptoms of wheezing and shortness of breath quickly. Cromolyn (choice B) is used more for preventing asthma symptoms rather than for immediate relief. Methylprednisolone IV (choice C) and Aminophylline 500 mg IV (choice D) are not the first-line treatments for wheezing due to an allergic reaction.
3. What dietary recommendation should be given to a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease?
- A. Limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day
- B. Increase sodium intake
- C. Restrict protein intake to 0.55-0.60 g/kg/day
- D. Eat three large meals per day
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct dietary recommendation for a patient with pre-dialysis end-stage kidney disease is to limit phosphorus intake to 700 mg/day. Excess phosphorus can be harmful to individuals with kidney disease as their kidneys are not able to remove it effectively. Choice B is incorrect as increasing sodium intake is generally not recommended for individuals with kidney disease due to its association with high blood pressure. Choice C is also incorrect as protein restriction is a common recommendation for patients with advanced kidney disease, but the range provided is not accurate. Choice D is incorrect as eating three large meals per day may not be suitable for managing the condition.
4. What ECG changes are associated with hyperkalemia?
- A. Flattened T waves
- B. ST depression
- C. Prominent U waves
- D. Elevated ST segments
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is known to cause ST depression on an ECG. Flattened T waves are more commonly seen in hypokalemia. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia. Elevated ST segments are not typical findings in hyperkalemia.
5. What are the expected symptoms in a patient with compartment syndrome?
- A. Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness
- B. Localized swelling and redness
- C. Fever and swelling
- D. Weakness and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Unrelieved pain, pallor, and pulselessness. These symptoms are classic signs of compartment syndrome, which is a serious condition characterized by reduced circulation in a closed muscle compartment. The pain is typically severe and disproportionate to the injury, and if left untreated, it can lead to tissue damage and loss of function. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the hallmark symptoms of compartment syndrome. Localized swelling and redness may be present but are not specific to this condition. Fever and swelling are more indicative of inflammation or infection, while weakness and fatigue are nonspecific and do not typically occur in isolation in compartment syndrome.
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