a nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client and suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction to the blood which of the followin
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Adult Medical Surgical Assessment 1

1. While administering a blood transfusion, a nurse suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when suspecting an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion is to stop the transfusion immediately. Stopping the transfusion helps prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs are important steps but come after stopping the transfusion in this situation. Contacting the provider can be done after ensuring the client's safety by stopping the transfusion.

2. What intervention is needed for a patient with a chest tube and an air leak?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a patient with a chest tube and an air leak is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system. This step helps prevent air leaks and ensures the proper functioning of the chest tube. Choice B, replacing the chest tube, is not necessary as tightening the connections should be attempted first. Clamping the chest tube (Choice C) is not recommended as it can lead to complications by obstructing the drainage system. Continuing to monitor the chest tube (Choice D) without taking action may result in worsening of the air leak. Therefore, the priority intervention is to tighten the connections of the chest tube system.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 minutes. After maintaining the client's airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, where the client has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over an extended period, the priority is to administer a medication that can rapidly terminate the seizures. Diazepam is the medication of choice for status epilepticus due to its rapid onset of action within 10 minutes when administered intravenously. Lorazepam is also an option, but it is typically administered intravenously as well. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for seizures. Clonazepam, although used for seizures, is not the ideal choice in this acute situation due to its slower onset of action compared to benzodiazepines like diazepam and lorazepam.

4. What are the adverse effects of radiation after a mastectomy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 heart sound, fatigue. Radiation after a mastectomy can lead to fatigue and symptoms of heart failure, such as the presence of an S3 heart sound. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Pulselessness in the affected extremity would be more relevant to vascular complications, shortness of breath (SOB) and jugular venous distention (JVD) could indicate cardiac or respiratory issues unrelated to radiation, and localized pain, swelling, and erythema are more characteristic of a local inflammatory response rather than the systemic effects of radiation post-mastectomy.

5. What is a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flattened T waves are a characteristic sign of hypokalemia on an ECG. When potassium levels are low, it can lead to changes in the ECG, such as T wave flattening. This alteration is important to recognize as it indicates potential electrolyte imbalances. ST elevation (Choice B) is not typically associated with hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like myocardial infarction. Prominent U waves (Choice C) are associated with hypokalemia, but flattened T waves are more specific. Widened QRS complex (Choice D) is not a typical ECG finding in hypokalemia but can be seen in conditions like hyperkalemia.

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