Nursing Elites

1. Tatiana has been hospitalized for an acute manic episode. On admission, the nurse suspects lithium toxicity. What assessment findings would indicate the nurse's suspicion as correct?

• A. Shortness of breath, gastrointestinal distress, chronic cough
• B. Ataxia, severe hypotension, large volume of dilute urine
• C. Gastrointestinal distress, thirst, nystagmus
• D. Electroencephalographic changes, chest pain, dizziness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ataxia, severe hypotension, and a large volume of dilute urine are classic signs of lithium toxicity. Ataxia refers to a lack of muscle coordination, severe hypotension indicates dangerously low blood pressure, and the large volume of dilute urine is a result of the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine properly, a common feature of lithium toxicity.

2. A healthcare professional is providing care for a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder. Which client behavior would the healthcare professional identify as characteristic of a manic episode?

• A. Sleeping excessively
• B. Excessive energy
• C. Decreased appetite
• D. Lack of interest in activities

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals often experience heightened energy levels, increased goal-directed activity, and may engage in risky behaviors. This excessive energy is a key characteristic of manic episodes. Choice A, sleeping excessively, is more characteristic of a depressive episode. Choice C, decreased appetite, can be seen in various mood disorders but is not specific to manic episodes. Choice D, lack of interest in activities, is more indicative of a depressive episode rather than a manic episode. It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize these signs to provide appropriate care and support to individuals with bipolar disorder.

3. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Alogia
• D. Paranoia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alogia, also known as poverty of speech, is a negative symptom of schizophrenia. It refers to a reduction in the amount of speech or the feeling that one has nothing to say. Hallucinations and delusions are positive symptoms, characterized by the presence of abnormal experiences and beliefs. Paranoia is a symptom involving intense anxious or fearful feelings, which is not classified as a negative symptom of schizophrenia.

4. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

5. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

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