Nursing Elites

1. During an intake assessment, a healthcare professional asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, 'I'm here for my heart, not my head problems.' What is the healthcare professional's best response?

• A. It's just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these same questions.
• B. Why are you concerned about these types of questions?
• C. Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions.
• D. We can skip these questions, if you like. It isn't imperative that we complete this section.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthcare professional should educate the client on the negative effects of excessive stress on medical conditions. Understanding the interconnectedness of physical and mental health is crucial for providing holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't address the importance of psychosocial aspects. Choice B is wrong as it doesn't provide relevant information about the impact of psychological factors on health. Choice D is incorrect because skipping questions would lead to an incomplete assessment, potentially missing crucial information affecting the client's overall health outcomes.

2. A client is prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the management of anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. I can drink alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I should avoid driving while taking this medication.
• D. I should avoid using this medication during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the side effects of lorazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, which can be dangerous, especially when combined with activities like driving or operating machinery. Choice A is correct as it promotes medication adherence. Choice C is correct as lorazepam can impair cognitive and motor skills, impacting driving ability. Choice D is correct as lorazepam is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus.

3. During an acute panic attack, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings
• B. Provide a calm environment
• C. Teach the client deep breathing exercises
• D. Leave the client alone to calm down

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an acute panic attack, the priority intervention is to create a calm and safe environment. Teaching the client deep breathing exercises is crucial as it promotes relaxation and reduces hyperventilation, helping to manage the panic attack effectively. Encouraging the client to discuss their feelings may exacerbate the panic by increasing emotional distress. Providing a busy environment can escalate stress levels rather than alleviate them. Leaving the client alone may lead to feelings of abandonment or worsen the panic attack. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to teach deep breathing exercises to help the client regain control and manage the panic attack.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which intervention should the nurse implement to support the client's recovery?

• A. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
• B. Encourage the client to maintain a regular sleep schedule.
• C. Encourage the client to set realistic goals for daily activities.
• D. Encourage the client to express feelings of sadness.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, encouraging the client to set realistic goals for daily activities can be beneficial. Setting achievable goals can provide structure, a sense of accomplishment, and help in breaking tasks into manageable steps, which can support the client's recovery process. Options A and B, while important in managing bipolar disorder, may not directly address the client's depressive symptoms during this episode. Option D, encouraging the client to express feelings of sadness, is not as effective as setting achievable goals in providing structure and a sense of accomplishment during a depressive episode.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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