ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. Which client action is an example of the defense mechanism of sublimation?
- A. A woman channels her energy into a new hobby after a breakup.
- B. A man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine.
- C. A student focuses on studying to avoid thinking about a recent argument.
- D. An athlete channels competitive impulses into a successful sports career.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities. In this scenario, the man redirects his anger from work into a workout routine, which is a positive and constructive way of managing his emotions. Choices A, C, and D do not fully align with sublimation as they do not involve redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable outlets, unlike the man's action in choice B.
2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to suppress compulsive behaviors.
- B. Set strict limits on the amount of time the client can engage in compulsive behaviors.
- C. Allow the client to perform compulsive behaviors as needed.
- D. Gradually limit the amount of time allotted for compulsive behaviors.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In caring for a client with OCD, it is essential to gradually limit the time allotted for compulsive behaviors. This intervention helps the client develop alternative coping mechanisms. Encouraging suppression or setting strict limits on compulsive behaviors can exacerbate the client's anxiety, making it crucial to approach the care plan with a gradual reduction strategy. Allowing the client to perform compulsive behaviors as needed does not promote progress towards managing OCD symptoms and may reinforce maladaptive patterns of behavior.
3. When assessing a client with bipolar disorder who is experiencing a depressive episode, which of the following findings should the nurse not expect?
- A. Low energy
- B. Feelings of hopelessness
- C. Insomnia or hypersomnia
- D. Difficulty concentrating
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, common findings include low energy, feelings of hopelessness, insomnia or hypersomnia, and decreased appetite. Difficulty concentrating is more indicative of attention deficit disorders or cognitive impairment rather than a typical presentation of a depressive episode in bipolar disorder.
4. Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?
- A. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual responses to stress vary.
- B. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar stressors.
- C. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond similarly to stress.
- D. Environmental influences weigh more heavily than genetic influences on reactions to stress.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individual responses to stress can vary significantly due to factors such as perception, past experiences, and environmental influences, in addition to genetic factors. It is not unusual for identical twins to exhibit different reactions to stress as their individual personalities and coping mechanisms play a significant role in how they respond to stressful situations. Choice A is the correct answer because it acknowledges the variability in responses to stress among individuals. Choice B is incorrect because it wrongly labels differing reactions in identical twins as abnormal, when in reality, it is a natural phenomenon. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes that identical twins should always have the same temperament and response to stress, which is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors in shaping responses to stress.
5. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.
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