Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to avoid daytime drowsiness.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking sertraline (Zoloft). Alcohol can exacerbate the side effects of the medication, such as drowsiness and dizziness, and may also decrease the effectiveness of the treatment for depression. Choice A is incorrect as sertraline is usually taken in the morning. Choice C is not a specific instruction related to the medication. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping sertraline can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours each day washing her hands. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to wash her hands less frequently.
• B. Set a time limit for hand washing.
• C. Teach the client relaxation techniques.
• D. Discourage the client from washing her hands.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Setting a time limit for hand washing is an appropriate intervention for a client with OCD who spends excessive time on this compulsive behavior. By setting a time limit, the nurse can help the client gradually reduce the compulsive behavior, promoting a more manageable approach to hand washing without completely discouraging it. Encouraging the client to wash her hands less frequently (Choice A) may not address the root of the issue and could lead to increased anxiety. Teaching relaxation techniques (Choice C) may be helpful for overall anxiety management but may not directly address the excessive hand washing behavior. Discouraging the client from washing her hands (Choice D) may increase anxiety and resistance, making it a less effective intervention.

3. A client prescribed diazepam for anxiety is receiving education from a healthcare professional. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I can drink alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I should take this medication only when I feel anxious.
• D. I can stop taking this medication when I feel better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking diazepam (Valium) as it can potentiate the effects of the medication, leading to excessive sedation and other adverse effects. Mixing alcohol with diazepam can also increase the risk of overdose and other serious complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to refrain from consuming alcohol while on this medication to ensure their safety and optimize the therapeutic benefits of diazepam for managing anxiety.

4. During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, which intervention is most appropriate for a patient?

• A. Encourage the patient to engage in group activities.
• B. Provide a structured and low-stimulus environment.
• C. Allow the patient to set their schedule.
• D. Engage the patient in high-energy physical activities.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals may experience heightened energy levels, impulsivity, and decreased need for sleep. Providing a structured and low-stimulus environment is crucial in managing manic episodes. This intervention helps reduce overstimulation and provides a calm and predictable setting, which can be beneficial in helping the patient regain control and stability. Group activities and high-energy physical activities may exacerbate the symptoms of mania by increasing stimulation and excitement. Allowing the patient to set their schedule may not provide the necessary structure needed during a manic episode, hence making it less appropriate.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

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