Nursing Elites

1. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to avoid daytime drowsiness.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking sertraline (Zoloft). Alcohol can exacerbate the side effects of the medication, such as drowsiness and dizziness, and may also decrease the effectiveness of the treatment for depression. Choice A is incorrect as sertraline is usually taken in the morning. Choice C is not a specific instruction related to the medication. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping sertraline can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

2. A nursing instructor is teaching a group of students about intimate partner violence. Which response by the students indicates no further teaching is needed?

• A. Alaska Native women report the highest rate of intimate partner violence.
• B. Caucasian women report the lowest rate of intimate partner violence.
• C. African American women report the highest rate of intimate partner violence.
• D. Asian women report the lowest rate of intimate partner violence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alaska Native women do report the highest rate of intimate partner violence. This statistic is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of to provide culturally sensitive care and interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect statements. While it is essential to understand disparities in intimate partner violence rates among different populations, in this context, the focus is on recognizing the accurate information provided about Alaska Native women.

3. A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which medication is commonly prescribed for this phase of the disorder?

• A. Valproic acid
• B. Risperidone
• C. Fluoxetine
• D. Lithium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Fluoxetine. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is commonly prescribed to manage the depressive episodes in bipolar disorder. SSRIs are effective in treating the depressive phase of bipolar disorder as they help regulate serotonin levels in the brain, which can improve mood and reduce symptoms of depression. Choice A, Valproic acid, is used more commonly in the treatment of acute mania or mixed episodes in bipolar disorder. Choice B, Risperidone, is an atypical antipsychotic often used to manage psychotic symptoms in bipolar disorder. Choice D, Lithium, is primarily used for the maintenance treatment of bipolar disorder to prevent future manic and depressive episodes.

4. A client has been prescribed lithium for the treatment of bipolar disorder. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid driving until you know how the medication affects you.
• B. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• C. You may experience mild nausea when initiating the medication.
• D. Do not double the next dose if you miss one.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to advise the client to avoid driving until they know how the medication affects them. Lithium can lead to side effects like dizziness and drowsiness, which could impair one's ability to drive safely. Choice B is incorrect because lithium is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C may be true but is not as critical as the potential side effects affecting driving. Choice D is important but not as immediate as ensuring the client's safety while driving.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with conversion disorder. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Paralysis of a limb
• B. Auditory hallucinations
• C. Dissociative amnesia
• D. Compulsive behaviors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conversion disorder is characterized by the development of neurological symptoms, such as paralysis of a limb, that cannot be explained by medical evaluation. The paralysis is typically due to a psychological conflict or stress rather than a physical issue. Auditory hallucinations, dissociative amnesia, and compulsive behaviors are not commonly associated with conversion disorder, making them incorrect choices. Therefore, the healthcare provider should expect to find paralysis of a limb in a client with conversion disorder.

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