a nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed sertraline zoloft for the treatment of depression which of the followi
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Practice B

1. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking sertraline (Zoloft). Alcohol can exacerbate the side effects of the medication, such as drowsiness and dizziness, and may also decrease the effectiveness of the treatment for depression. Choice A is incorrect as sertraline is usually taken in the morning. Choice C is not a specific instruction related to the medication. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping sertraline can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

2. Which of the following are characteristics of borderline personality disorder? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by an intense fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, and chronic feelings of emptiness. Grandiosity, which involves an exaggerated sense of self-importance and superiority, is more commonly associated with narcissistic personality disorder rather than borderline personality disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

3. A client prescribed sertraline for depression is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because sertraline, used for depression, typically takes several weeks to become effective. It is important for clients to understand this delayed onset of action to manage their expectations and continue taking the medication as prescribed despite not seeing immediate results.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Findings in a client with bipolar disorder typically include periods of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and flight of ideas. Anhedonia, characterized by the inability to experience pleasure, is more commonly associated with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not expect anhedonia in a client with suspected bipolar disorder. The other choices are characteristic features of bipolar disorder, such as mania or hypomania.

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