Nursing Elites

1. A client has a history of excessive drinking, which has led to multiple arrests for driving under the influence (DUI). The client states, 'I work hard to provide for my family. I don't see why I can't drink to relax.' The nurse recognizes the use of which defense mechanism?

• A. Projection
• B. Rationalization
• C. Regression
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client is using rationalization, a common defense mechanism. Rationalization involves creating logical reasons to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors. In this scenario, the client is justifying excessive drinking by linking it to hard work and the need for relaxation, masking the true underlying issue of alcohol abuse. Projection involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development, and sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities, none of which are demonstrated in the client's statement.

2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) tells the nurse, 'I know my behavior is unreasonable, but I can't help it.' What response should the nurse provide?

• A. Your behavior is part of your illness, and it is important to work on changing it.
• B. It is important to understand why you feel the need to perform these behaviors.
• C. Let's figure out a way for you to control these behaviors.
• D. It sounds like you are feeling powerless to change your behavior.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should acknowledge the client's awareness of the irrationality of their behavior and the feeling of powerlessness to change it. By reflecting the client's feelings, the nurse validates them and opens a discussion on strategies to manage the behavior effectively. Empathy and understanding are key in supporting clients with OCD. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses more on changing the behavior rather than acknowledging the client's feelings. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's sense of powerlessness. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't validate the client's feelings of being unable to control the behaviors.

3. When explaining one of the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse mention?

• A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it difficult to differentiate between them.
• B. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished.
• C. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome can experience temporary paralysis during naps.
• D. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with catatonia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while obstructive sleep apnea syndrome involves the obstruction of the upper airway during sleep. One of the main differences is that people with narcolepsy often experience refreshing naps, feeling rested and replenished upon waking, which is not the case for obstructive sleep apnea syndrome. This distinction is important for healthcare providers to understand as it helps differentiate between these two sleep disorders.

4. A client has been prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for depression. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime to prevent daytime drowsiness.
• B. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you start feeling better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid consuming alcohol while taking escitalopram (Lexapro). Alcohol can potentiate side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness when combined with this medication. Choice A is incorrect because escitalopram is usually taken in the morning due to its potential to cause insomnia if taken at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because taking the medication with or without food does not significantly affect its absorption or side effects. Choice D is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue taking the medication even if they start feeling better, as abruptly stopping an antidepressant can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a relapse of depression.

5. Which intervention is particularly well chosen for addressing a population at high risk for developing schizophrenia?

• A. Screening a group of males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms.
• B. Forming a support group for females aged 25 to 35 with substance use issues.
• C. Providing coping skills information to a group aged 45 to 55.
• D. Educating parents of developmentally delayed 5- to 6-year-olds on early intervention importance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Screening males aged 15 to 25 for early symptoms of schizophrenia is a well-chosen intervention as this age group is at a higher risk for developing the condition. Early identification can lead to timely treatment and better outcomes, making this intervention particularly effective in addressing the population at risk for schizophrenia.

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