Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following therapies is considered the most effective for treating phobias?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is widely recognized as the most effective treatment for phobias. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with their phobias, leading to long-lasting improvement and symptom reduction. Unlike psychoanalysis, which focuses on exploring unconscious conflicts, CBT provides practical strategies to address phobias directly. Medication management may be used in conjunction with therapy but is not typically considered a standalone treatment for phobias. Group therapy can be beneficial for some individuals, but CBT is specifically tailored to target and alleviate phobia symptoms effectively.

2. A client has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac) for the treatment of depression. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime to avoid daytime drowsiness.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking fluoxetine (Prozac) because alcohol can increase the risk of side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness. It is important to follow this instruction to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication in the treatment of depression. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine (Prozac) is usually taken in the morning to prevent insomnia. Choice C is not a crucial instruction for this medication. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping fluoxetine can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

3. Cabot has multiple symptoms of depression including mood reactivity, social phobia, anxiety, and overeating. With a history of mild hypertension, which classification of antidepressants dispensed as a transdermal patch would be a safe medication?

• A. Tricyclic antidepressants
• B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
• C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
• D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors dispensed as transdermal patches can be a safer option for patients with mild hypertension due to reduced systemic absorption compared to other forms of antidepressants, potentially minimizing cardiovascular effects associated with hypertension.

4. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication in the morning to avoid daytime drowsiness.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking sertraline (Zoloft). Alcohol can exacerbate the side effects of the medication, such as drowsiness and dizziness, and may also decrease the effectiveness of the treatment for depression. Choice A is incorrect as sertraline is usually taken in the morning. Choice C is not a specific instruction related to the medication. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping sertraline can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

Similar Questions