Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following therapies is considered the most effective for treating phobias?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is widely recognized as the most effective treatment for phobias. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with their phobias, leading to long-lasting improvement and symptom reduction. Unlike psychoanalysis, which focuses on exploring unconscious conflicts, CBT provides practical strategies to address phobias directly. Medication management may be used in conjunction with therapy but is not typically considered a standalone treatment for phobias. Group therapy can be beneficial for some individuals, but CBT is specifically tailored to target and alleviate phobia symptoms effectively.

2. A client diagnosed with OCD spends hours bathing and grooming. During a one-on-one interaction, the client discusses the rituals in detail but avoids any feelings that the rituals generate. Which defense mechanism should the nurse identify?

• A. Dissociation
• B. Rationalization
• C. Sublimation
• D. Intellectualization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intellectualization is a defense mechanism where an individual focuses on rational, logical explanations to distance themselves from uncomfortable emotions. In this scenario, the client discusses the OCD rituals in a detailed and analytical manner, avoiding the emotional aspects associated with them. This behavior reflects intellectualization rather than dissociation, rationalization, or sublimation. Dissociation involves a disconnection from reality, rationalization is the attempt to justify behaviors, and sublimation is redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.

3. During an admission assessment and interview, which channels of information communication should the nurse be monitoring? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Auditory
• B. Visual
• C. Written
• D. Tactile

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an admission assessment and interview, nurses should monitor auditory, visual, and tactile channels of communication. Written communication is not typically monitored during a face-to-face interview or assessment, making it the correct choice that doesn't apply in this scenario.

4. Carolina is surprised when her patient does not show for a regularly scheduled appointment. When contacted, the patient states, <I don't need to come see you anymore. I have found a therapy app on my phone that I love.= How should Carolina respond to this news?

• A. That sounds exciting, would you be willing to visit and show me the app?
• B. At this time, there is no real evidence that the app can replace our therapy.
• C. I am not sure that is a good idea right now, we are so close to progress.
• D. Why would you think that is a better option than meeting with me?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Showing interest in the app can build rapport and allow for evaluation of its effectiveness.

5. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

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