ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023
1. A female patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been prescribed a first-generation antipsychotic medication. What information should the nurse provide to the patient regarding her signs and symptoms?
- A. Her memory problems will likely decrease.
- B. Depressive episodes should be less severe.
- C. She will probably enjoy social interactions more.
- D. She should experience a reduction in hallucinations.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: First-generation antipsychotic medications are effective in reducing hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. These medications primarily target positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Therefore, the nurse should inform the patient that she should experience a reduction in hallucinations with the prescribed first-generation antipsychotic medication.
2. An individual who has survived incest and is receiving treatment at the mental health clinic feels relief upon understanding that her anxiety and depression are:
- A. Going to be eradicated with treatment
- B. Normal and will soon pass
- C. Abnormal but will pass
- D. A normal reaction to posttraumatic events
Correct answer: D
Rationale: It is important to recognize that anxiety and depression are common responses to traumatic events like incest. Understanding that these feelings are normal reactions can help validate the individual's experiences and reduce stigma. By acknowledging that anxiety and depression are expected outcomes of posttraumatic events, the mental health clinic can provide appropriate support and treatment to help the survivor cope and heal. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it reflects a compassionate and informed approach to addressing the survivor's emotional struggles.
3. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?
- A. Pupil dilation
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Decreased salivation
- D. Decreased peristalsis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.
4. Which should the healthcare provider recognize as a DSM-5 disorder?
- A. Obesity
- B. Generalized anxiety disorder
- C. Hypertension
- D. Grief
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The DSM-5 categorizes mental health disorders for diagnostic purposes. Generalized anxiety disorder is one of the disorders listed in the DSM-5, characterized by persistent and excessive worry about various events or activities. This disorder falls under the category of anxiety disorders, which also include panic disorder, phobias, and others. Choices A, C, and D are not DSM-5 disorders. Obesity and hypertension are medical conditions, while grief, though a significant emotional response, is not classified as a mental health disorder in the DSM-5.
5. When a patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed escitalopram, what potential side effect should the healthcare provider educate the patient about?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Insomnia
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insomnia. Escitalopram, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), commonly causes insomnia as a side effect. Patients should be informed about the possibility of experiencing difficulty falling or staying asleep when starting this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and hypertension are not typically associated with escitalopram use.
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