Nursing Elites

1. When discussing the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse highlight?

• A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it challenging to differentiate between them
• B. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with cataplexy
• C. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished
• D. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome may experience temporary paralysis during sleep

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Narcolepsy is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while individuals with narcolepsy often feel refreshed after a brief nap. In contrast, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is marked by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep, leading to fragmented sleep and excessive daytime sleepiness. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished, which is a key distinguishing feature from obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.

2. A client is prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the management of anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. I can drink alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I should avoid driving while taking this medication.
• D. I should avoid using this medication during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the side effects of lorazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, which can be dangerous, especially when combined with activities like driving or operating machinery. Choice A is correct as it promotes medication adherence. Choice C is correct as lorazepam can impair cognitive and motor skills, impacting driving ability. Choice D is correct as lorazepam is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus.

3. In a client's history, a significant indicator suggesting marginal coping skills and the need for careful risk assessment for violence is a history of

• A. childhood trauma.
• B. family involvement.
• C. academic problems.
• D. chemical dependence.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A history of chemical dependence is a critical factor indicating marginal coping skills and the need for assessing the risk of violence. Substance abuse can impair judgment, increase impulsivity, and escalate the likelihood of violent behavior. It is essential to thoroughly evaluate and address substance abuse issues in clients to enhance treatment outcomes and ensure safety.

4. Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?

• A. Lithium
• B. Alprazolam
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.

5. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

• A. I should take this medication as needed for anxiety.
• B. I need to avoid eating aged cheeses.
• C. It may take several weeks for this medication to take effect.
• D. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Buspirone (Buspar) may take several weeks to take effect, so clients should continue taking it as prescribed.

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