Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy.
• B. Place the client in a private room to decrease stimulation.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in physical activity.
• D. Administer a prescribed sedative.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may be easily overstimulated. Placing the client in a private room to decrease environmental stimuli is the priority intervention. This action can help reduce the risk of exacerbating manic symptoms and promote a calmer environment for the client. Choice A is not the priority as group therapy may be overwhelming during a manic episode. Choice C could potentially increase stimulation rather than decrease it. Choice D should not be the first action as sedatives are generally not the initial intervention for managing manic episodes.

2. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) and is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

• A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. It may take several weeks for this medication to be effective.
• C. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. I should avoid eating aged cheeses and processed meats.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to be effective, so it is important for the client to be informed about this timeframe. This medication does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, but it can be taken with or without food. Choice A is a good practice for many medications but not specifically related to sertraline (Zoloft). Choice D is not directly related to sertraline (Zoloft) but pertains to dietary restrictions when taking MAOIs due to potential interactions with tyramine.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours each day washing her hands. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help the client reduce this behavior?

• A. Encourage the client to set a time limit for washing hands.
• B. Encourage the client to wash hands only when necessary.
• C. Encourage the client to use hand sanitizer instead of washing.
• D. Encourage the client to explore the reasons behind the hand washing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting a time limit for hand washing is an effective intervention in managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) symptoms. By establishing boundaries around the behavior, the client can gradually work towards reducing the excessive hand washing and regaining control over the compulsion. Choice B is not as effective because it does not address the underlying compulsion. Choice C may not be helpful as it may not satisfy the client's need for cleanliness and could reinforce the behavior. Choice D, while important in therapy, may not be the most immediate intervention needed to address the excessive hand washing behavior.

4. A client has a history of excessive drinking, which has led to multiple arrests for driving under the influence (DUI). The client states, 'I work hard to provide for my family. I don't see why I can't drink to relax.' The nurse recognizes the use of which defense mechanism?

• A. Projection
• B. Rationalization
• C. Regression
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client is using rationalization, a common defense mechanism. Rationalization involves creating logical reasons to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors. In this scenario, the client is justifying excessive drinking by linking it to hard work and the need for relaxation, masking the true underlying issue of alcohol abuse. Projection involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development, and sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities, none of which are demonstrated in the client's statement.

5. A fourth-grade student teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a professional as indicative of which defense mechanism?

• A. Displacement
• B. Projection
• C. Reaction formation
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The professional should identify that the student is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation involves expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed. In this scenario, the student's teasing and joking behavior towards the girl can be seen as a way to cover up or mask his true feelings or desires towards her. Displacement involves redirecting emotions from the original source to a substitute target; Projection involves attributing one's undesirable feelings to others; Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities. Therefore, in this case, the student's behavior aligns most closely with reaction formation.

Similar Questions