Nursing Elites

1. A client has been taking lithium for several years with good symptom control. The client presents in the emergency department with blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea. Which lithium level should the nurse correlate with these symptoms?

• A. 3.7
• B. 1.7
• C. 2.6
• D. 1.3

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Symptoms such as blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea are indicative of lithium toxicity. A lithium level of 1.7 is within the toxic range. When clients present with these symptoms, it is crucial for the nurse to correlate them with elevated lithium levels to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications.

2. A client has generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse avoid implementing?

• A. Encourage the client to express their feelings
• B. Monitor daily caloric intake and weight
• C. Promote regular physical activity
• D. Discourage the use of caffeine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In caring for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), it is important to encourage the client to express their feelings, promote regular physical activity, and discourage the use of caffeine. Addressing weight and caloric intake monitoring may exacerbate anxiety related to body image, and focusing on these aspects can be distressing for the client. Therefore, monitoring daily caloric intake and weight should be avoided in this scenario.

3. Which of the following is a common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?

• A. Memory loss
• B. Weight gain
• C. Insomnia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Memory loss, particularly short-term memory loss, is a common side effect of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). ECT can affect memory due to its impact on brain function during and after treatment. While the memory issues are often temporary and tend to improve over time, they are important considerations when discussing the risks and benefits of ECT with patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as weight gain, insomnia, and increased appetite are not common side effects of ECT.

4. A client is being taught relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which of the following techniques should the instructor include in the teaching? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Deep breathing exercises
• B. Progressive muscle relaxation
• C. Mindfulness meditation
• D. Cognitive restructuring

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Relaxation techniques commonly used to manage anxiety include deep breathing exercises, progressive muscle relaxation, mindfulness meditation, and guided imagery. Cognitive restructuring, on the other hand, is a cognitive-behavioral technique aimed at identifying and changing negative thought patterns rather than a specific relaxation technique. Therefore, cognitive restructuring does not fall under the category of relaxation techniques and is not typically used to manage anxiety.

5. When explaining one of the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse mention?

• A. Symptoms of the two diagnoses are essentially the same, making it difficult to differentiate between them.
• B. People with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished.
• C. People with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome can experience temporary paralysis during naps.
• D. Naps are contraindicated for clients with narcolepsy due to their association with catatonia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Narcolepsy is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while obstructive sleep apnea syndrome involves the obstruction of the upper airway during sleep. One of the main differences is that people with narcolepsy often experience refreshing naps, feeling rested and replenished upon waking, which is not the case for obstructive sleep apnea syndrome. This distinction is important for healthcare providers to understand as it helps differentiate between these two sleep disorders.

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