Nursing Elites

1. A client has been taking lithium for several years with good symptom control. The client presents in the emergency department with blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea. Which lithium level should the nurse correlate with these symptoms?

• A. 3.7
• B. 1.7
• C. 2.6
• D. 1.3

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Symptoms such as blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea are indicative of lithium toxicity. A lithium level of 1.7 is within the toxic range. When clients present with these symptoms, it is crucial for the nurse to correlate them with elevated lithium levels to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications.

2. In the treatment of a patient with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode, which medication is commonly prescribed?

• A. Valproic acid
• B. Risperidone
• C. Fluoxetine
• D. Lithium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Fluoxetine. Fluoxetine, a commonly prescribed antidepressant, is used to manage depressive episodes in bipolar disorder. It helps alleviate symptoms of depression by increasing the levels of serotonin in the brain, which can improve mood and reduce feelings of sadness and hopelessness. While mood stabilizers like lithium are often used in bipolar disorder, for depressive episodes, antidepressants like fluoxetine are preferred to address the specific symptoms associated with depression. Valproic acid is a mood stabilizer often used in bipolar disorder to manage manic episodes. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic that may be used in bipolar disorder to help control manic episodes or as an adjunctive treatment, but it is not a first-line medication for depressive episodes.

3. A 33-year-old female diagnosed with bipolar I disorder has been functioning well on lithium for 11 months. At her most recent checkup, the psychiatric nurse practitioner states, 'You are ready to enter the maintenance therapy stage, so at this time I am going to adjust your dosage by prescribing:'

• A. A higher dosage
• B. Once-weekly dosing
• C. A lower dosage
• D. A different drug

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the maintenance therapy stage for bipolar I disorder, it is common to lower the dosage of lithium to prevent side effects while still maintaining stability. Lowering the dosage helps to find the lowest effective dose that can still manage symptoms effectively with minimal side effects.

4. When under stress, a client routinely uses an excessive amount of alcohol. Finding her drunk, her husband yells at her about the chronic alcohol abuse. Which reaction should the nurse recognize as the use of the defense mechanism of denial?

• A. Hiding liquor bottles in a closet
• B. Yelling at their son for slouching in his chair
• C. Burning dinner on purpose
• D. Saying to the spouse, 'I don't drink too much!'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should recognize the client's statement 'I don't drink too much!' as the use of the defense mechanism of denial. This response indicates the client's refusal to acknowledge the reality of excessive alcohol consumption, which is a key characteristic of denial. By denying the problem, the client avoids facing the negative consequences and feelings associated with their alcohol abuse. Choices A, B, and C do not exhibit denial but rather represent different defense mechanisms. Hiding liquor bottles in a closet might indicate the defense mechanism of concealment, yelling at their son for slouching in his chair could reflect displacement, and burning dinner on purpose might suggest passive-aggressive behavior.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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