ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam
1. A client has been taking lithium for several years with good symptom control. The client presents in the emergency department with blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea. Which lithium level should the nurse correlate with these symptoms?
- A. 3.7
- B. 1.7
- C. 2.6
- D. 1.3
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Symptoms such as blurred vision, tinnitus, and severe diarrhea are indicative of lithium toxicity. A lithium level of 1.7 is within the toxic range. When clients present with these symptoms, it is crucial for the nurse to correlate them with elevated lithium levels to ensure timely intervention and prevent further complications.
2. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
- B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
- C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
- D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
3. During a mental status examination, which of the following components should not be included in the assessment?
- A. Appearance and behavior
- B. Giving advice
- C. Mood and affect
- D. Cognitive function
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a mental status examination, components such as appearance and behavior, mood and affect, and cognitive function are assessed. Giving advice is not a component of a mental status examination as it focuses on evaluating the client's mental state rather than providing guidance or recommendations.
4. A client is being taught relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which of the following techniques should the instructor include in the teaching? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Deep breathing exercises
- B. Progressive muscle relaxation
- C. Mindfulness meditation
- D. Cognitive restructuring
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Relaxation techniques commonly used to manage anxiety include deep breathing exercises, progressive muscle relaxation, mindfulness meditation, and guided imagery. Cognitive restructuring, on the other hand, is a cognitive-behavioral technique aimed at identifying and changing negative thought patterns rather than a specific relaxation technique. Therefore, cognitive restructuring does not fall under the category of relaxation techniques and is not typically used to manage anxiety.
5. A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used primarily to:
- A. Reduce anxiety symptoms
- B. Improve mood
- C. Increase energy levels
- D. Enhance social interactions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce anxiety symptoms. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, is primarily used to reduce physical symptoms of anxiety, such as rapid heartbeat and trembling, in patients with social anxiety disorder. It does not directly affect mood, energy levels, or social interactions. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not target mood improvement. Choice C is incorrect because propranolol does not aim to increase energy levels. Choice D is incorrect because propranolol does not enhance social interactions; its primary role is in reducing physical symptoms of anxiety.
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