which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of the dsm 5 diagnosis
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. Which statement indicates an understanding of the DSM-5 diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Option A is the correct answer as the DSM-5 not only provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders but also includes information on cultural considerations. Understanding cultural factors is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and providing appropriate care, highlighting the comprehensive nature of the DSM-5 for healthcare providers. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while the DSM-5 is indeed a tool for healthcare providers, it is also used in legal settings, and it focuses on diagnostic criteria and not just the prevalence of mental disorders.

2. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should educate the patient that the full therapeutic effect of this medication may take:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Escitalopram, an SSRI used in treating generalized anxiety disorder, typically takes 6-8 weeks to achieve its full therapeutic effect. While some improvement may be noticed earlier, the maximum benefit is usually experienced after this timeframe. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they underestimate the time required for escitalopram to reach its full effectiveness. Educating patients about the realistic timeline for medication effectiveness is crucial in managing expectations and ensuring adherence to the prescribed treatment.

3. When should healthcare professionals be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Healthcare professionals should be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient during change of shift reports. This is a critical time when information is transferred between healthcare providers, and any errors in communication during this handover can lead to adverse outcomes for the patient.

4. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is often used to treat which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a widely used therapeutic approach effective in treating various mental health conditions. While CBT can be beneficial for different disorders, it is particularly well-suited for anxiety-related conditions like generalized anxiety disorder. CBT focuses on identifying and modifying negative thought patterns and behaviors contributing to anxiety, making it a suitable choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because CBT is not typically the first-line treatment for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or posttraumatic stress disorder, although it may be used as a part of a comprehensive treatment plan.

5. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.

Similar Questions

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A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
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