Nursing Elites

1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) tells the nurse, 'I know my behavior is unreasonable, but I can't help it.' What response should the nurse provide?

• A. Your behavior is part of your illness, and it is important to work on changing it.
• B. It is important to understand why you feel the need to perform these behaviors.
• C. Let's figure out a way for you to control these behaviors.
• D. It sounds like you are feeling powerless to change your behavior.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should acknowledge the client's awareness of the irrationality of their behavior and the feeling of powerlessness to change it. By reflecting the client's feelings, the nurse validates them and opens a discussion on strategies to manage the behavior effectively. Empathy and understanding are key in supporting clients with OCD. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses more on changing the behavior rather than acknowledging the client's feelings. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly address the client's sense of powerlessness. Choice C is incorrect as it doesn't validate the client's feelings of being unable to control the behaviors.

2. During cognitive-behavioral therapy, a 12-year-old patient reports to the nurse practitioner:

• A. I was so mad I wanted to hit my mother.
• B. I thought that everyone at school hated me. That's not true. Most people like me and I have a friend named Todd.
• C. I forgot that you told me to breathe when I become angry.
• D. I scream as loud as I can when the train goes by the house.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy, recognizing and challenging negative thoughts is crucial for progress. Choice B demonstrates the patient's ability to identify and correct distorted thoughts, indicating positive advancement in therapy. This cognitive restructuring is a key component of cognitive-behavioral therapy, helping individuals develop healthier thinking patterns and coping strategies.

3. A client is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to participate in group therapy sessions.
• B. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings of anxiety.
• C. Encourage the client to limit caffeine intake.
• D. Encourage the client to avoid stressful situations.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings of anxiety is an appropriate intervention for severe anxiety. Verbalizing emotions can help the client process their feelings and reduce the intensity of anxiety. It promotes emotional expression and may lead to a better understanding of the underlying causes of anxiety, paving the way for effective coping strategies. Choices A, C, and D are not the most appropriate interventions for severe anxiety. While group therapy can be beneficial, it may not be suitable for someone experiencing severe anxiety. Limiting caffeine intake and avoiding stressful situations are helpful strategies but may not address the root of the severe anxiety or provide immediate relief.

4. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Tremors
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, diaphoresis, and seizures are commonly observed. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia, an increased heart rate, is more commonly seen. Therefore, bradycardia is the correct answer as it is not an expected symptom during alcohol withdrawal. Tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis are all common manifestations of alcohol withdrawal, while bradycardia is not typically seen in this context.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

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