Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following interventions should a nurse include in the care plan for a client with major depressive disorder? Select one that is not appropriate.

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Discourage verbalization of feelings
• D. Monitor for suicidal ideation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Interventions for a client with major depressive disorder should focus on encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, monitoring for suicidal ideation, and providing a structured daily schedule. Discouraging verbalization of feelings goes against the therapeutic approach as expressing and discussing feelings is crucial in the treatment of major depressive disorder. Clients with major depressive disorder often benefit from talking about their emotions and experiences, as it can help in processing their feelings and promoting recovery. Therefore, discouraging verbalization of feelings would hinder the client's progress and is not an appropriate intervention.

2. After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder due to dementia. Which statement would cause the nurse to question this diagnosis?

• A. There has been no triiodothyronine or thyroxine level evaluation ordered
• B. Neurocognitive disorders do not typically occur in African American clients
• C. The symptoms presented are more indicative of parkinsonism
• D. Dementia does not develop suddenly

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. Natasha's husband died suddenly two months ago, and she has been overwhelmed with grief. When Natasha is subsequently diagnosed with major depressive disorder, her daughter, Nadia, makes which true statement?

• A. Depression often begins after a major loss. Losing dad was a major loss.
• B. Bereavement and depression are the same problem.
• C. Mourning is pathological and not normal behavior.
• D. Antidepressant medications will not help this type of depression.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When individuals experience a significant loss, such as the death of a loved one, it can trigger major depressive disorder. This is because the intense grief and sadness associated with the loss can lead to the development of depressive symptoms. Therefore, Nadia's statement that 'Depression often begins after a major loss' is accurate in this context.

5. Cabot has multiple symptoms of depression including mood reactivity, social phobia, anxiety, and overeating. With a history of mild hypertension, which classification of antidepressants dispensed as a transdermal patch would be a safe medication?

• A. Tricyclic antidepressants
• B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
• C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
• D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors dispensed as transdermal patches can be a safer option for patients with mild hypertension due to reduced systemic absorption compared to other forms of antidepressants, potentially minimizing cardiovascular effects associated with hypertension.

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