Nursing Elites

1. How do epidemiological studies contribute to improvements in care for individuals with mental disorders?

• A. Providing information about effective nursing techniques.
• B. Identifying risk factors that contribute to the development of a disorder.
• C. Identifying individuals in the general population who will develop a specific disorder.
• D. Identifying which individuals will respond favorably to a specific treatment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Epidemiological studies play a crucial role in identifying risk factors associated with the development of mental disorders. By pinpointing these risk factors, healthcare providers can implement preventive measures and develop more effective treatments, ultimately leading to improved care for individuals with mental disorders.

2. Pablo is a homeless adult who has no family connection. Pablo passed out on the street, and emergency medical services took him to the hospital where he expresses a wish to die. The physician recognizes evidence of substance use problems and mental health issues and recommends inpatient treatment for Pablo. What is the rationale for this treatment choice? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Intermittent supervision is available in inpatient settings.
• B. He requires stabilization of multiple symptoms.
• C. How do you feel about talking to a mental health counselor?
• D. Medication adherence will be mandated.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because medication adherence being mandated is not a primary rationale for inpatient treatment. The main reasons for recommending inpatient treatment in this scenario include the need for stabilization of multiple symptoms, addressing nutritional and self-care needs, and ensuring safety due to the imminent danger of self-harm. Inpatient settings provide a more intensive level of care and supervision to address these complex issues effectively.

3. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?

• A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
• B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
• C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
• D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.

4. During a mental status examination, which of the following components should not be included in the assessment?

• A. Appearance and behavior
• B. Giving advice
• C. Mood and affect
• D. Cognitive function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a mental status examination, components such as appearance and behavior, mood and affect, and cognitive function are assessed. Giving advice is not a component of a mental status examination as it focuses on evaluating the client's mental state rather than providing guidance or recommendations.

5. In the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), what medication is frequently prescribed as a first-line treatment?

• A. Clonazepam
• B. Buspirone
• C. Propranolol
• D. Hydroxyzine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Buspirone is often chosen as a first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and favorable side effect profile. Unlike benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (A), buspirone does not carry the risk of tolerance, dependence, or withdrawal symptoms, making it a preferred choice. While propranolol (C) and hydroxyzine (D) are sometimes used for anxiety, they are not typically considered first-line treatments for GAD.

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