Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a patient with schizophrenia who is experiencing delusions. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Agree with the patient's delusions to avoid confrontation.
• B. Encourage the patient to explore the basis of the delusions.
• C. Engage the patient in reality-based activities.
• D. Ask the patient to explain the delusions in detail.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention when assessing a patient with schizophrenia experiencing delusions is to engage the patient in reality-based activities. This intervention helps distract the patient from the delusions and reorients them to the present, promoting grounding in reality. Choice A is incorrect because agreeing with delusions can reinforce them and hinder treatment. Choice B may exacerbate the delusions by delving deeper into their basis. Choice D may not be beneficial as it focuses solely on the delusions without addressing the need to ground the patient in reality.

2. A patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing flashbacks. The most appropriate intervention is to:

• A. Encourage the patient to talk about the trauma.
• B. Help the patient reorient to the present.
• C. Leave the patient alone to process the flashback.
• D. Remind the patient that the flashback is not real.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient with PTSD is experiencing flashbacks, the most appropriate intervention is to help them reorient to the present. This intervention can assist in reducing the intensity of the flashback and providing a sense of safety for the patient. Choice A is incorrect because encouraging the patient to talk about the trauma during a flashback may exacerbate their distress. Choice C is incorrect as leaving the patient alone can increase their feelings of isolation and fear. Choice D is incorrect because reminding the patient that the flashback is not real may invalidate their experience and increase their sense of disconnection.

3. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

4. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client identifies and challenges negative thoughts.
• B. The client reports an increase in suicidal thoughts.
• C. The client experiences an increase in anxiety.
• D. The client shows no change in behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), one of the primary objectives is to help clients identify and challenge their negative thoughts. This process allows the individual to reframe their thinking patterns and develop more adaptive coping strategies. Reporting an increase in suicidal thoughts (Choice B) or experiencing an increase in anxiety (Choice C) are not desired outcomes and may indicate a need for further intervention. Showing no change in behavior (Choice D) suggests that the therapy has not been effective. Therefore, the correct indicator of effective therapy in this context is the client's ability to identify and challenge negative thoughts (Choice A).

5. In a patient with schizophrenia, which of the following symptoms would indicate a poor prognosis?

• A. Auditory hallucinations
• B. Paranoia
• C. Flat affect
• D. Delusions of grandeur

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat affect, characterized by a lack of emotional expression, is often linked to a poorer prognosis in schizophrenia. It can hinder social interactions and affect the individual's ability to engage in therapy or express emotions, thereby impacting the overall treatment outcomes. Auditory hallucinations (Choice A) and delusions of grandeur (Choice D) are common symptoms in schizophrenia but may not always indicate a poor prognosis. Paranoia (Choice B) can also vary in its impact on prognosis depending on the individual and the severity of the symptom.

Similar Questions