ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which medication is commonly prescribed for this phase of the disorder?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Risperidone
- C. Fluoxetine
- D. Lithium
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Fluoxetine. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), is commonly prescribed to manage the depressive episodes in bipolar disorder. SSRIs are effective in treating the depressive phase of bipolar disorder as they help regulate serotonin levels in the brain, which can improve mood and reduce symptoms of depression. Choice A, Valproic acid, is used more commonly in the treatment of acute mania or mixed episodes in bipolar disorder. Choice B, Risperidone, is an atypical antipsychotic often used to manage psychotic symptoms in bipolar disorder. Choice D, Lithium, is primarily used for the maintenance treatment of bipolar disorder to prevent future manic and depressive episodes.
2. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypotension
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.
3. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.
4. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?
- A. Pacing and restlessness
- B. Verbal threats
- C. History of violence
- D. Substance abuse
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.
5. For a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior, which therapeutic approach is most appropriate?
- A. Dialectical behavior therapy
- B. Psychoanalysis
- C. Supportive therapy
- D. Pharmacotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate therapeutic approach for a patient diagnosed with borderline personality disorder exhibiting self-harming behavior is dialectical behavior therapy (DBT). DBT is specifically designed to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder, including self-harming behaviors. It focuses on teaching patients skills to manage emotions, improve interpersonal relationships, and enhance distress tolerance. Psychoanalysis (Choice B) is not the most appropriate for immediate symptom management in this case. Supportive therapy (Choice C) may not provide the structured approach needed to address self-harming behaviors effectively. Pharmacotherapy (Choice D) may be used as an adjunct in some cases, but DBT is the frontline therapy for managing self-harming behaviors in borderline personality disorder.
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