ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?
- A. I should take this medication as needed for anxiety.
- B. I need to avoid eating aged cheeses.
- C. It may take several weeks for this medication to take effect.
- D. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Buspirone (Buspar) may take several weeks to take effect, so clients should continue taking it as prescribed.
2. A patient with bipolar disorder has been prescribed lithium. Which dietary advice is important for the nurse to include?
- A. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
- B. Maintain a consistent salt intake.
- C. Increase protein intake.
- D. Avoid foods high in fat.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patients prescribed lithium should maintain a consistent salt intake to prevent fluctuations in lithium levels. Salt intake can impact lithium levels, and sudden changes in salt intake can affect how the body absorbs and excretes lithium. Therefore, advising the patient to maintain a stable salt intake is crucial for the effectiveness and safety of lithium therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding foods high in tyramine is more relevant for patients taking MAOIs, not lithium. Increasing protein intake or avoiding foods high in fat are not specific dietary recommendations for patients on lithium therapy.
3. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?
- A. Pupil dilation
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Decreased salivation
- D. Decreased peristalsis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.
4. When should healthcare professionals be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient?
- A. Change of shift reports
- B. Admission interviews
- C. One-to-one conversations with patients
- D. Conversations with patient families
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Healthcare professionals should be most alert to the possibility of communication errors resulting in harm to the patient during change of shift reports. This is a critical time when information is transferred between healthcare providers, and any errors in communication during this handover can lead to adverse outcomes for the patient.
5. To provide effective care for the patient diagnosed with schizophrenia, the nurse should frequently assess for which associated condition? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Alcohol use disorder
- B. Major depressive disorder
- C. Stomach cancer
- D. Polydipsia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Schizophrenia is often associated with comorbid conditions such as alcohol use disorder, major depressive disorder, polydipsia, and metabolic syndrome. Stomach cancer is not a common associated condition with schizophrenia and would not be a typical focus of assessment in managing a patient with this mental health disorder.
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