Nursing Elites

1. In managing a patient with anorexia nervosa, which initial treatment goal is most important?

• A. Addressing distorted body image
• B. Restoring nutritional status
• C. Resolving family conflicts
• D. Increasing social interactions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most crucial initial treatment goal for anorexia nervosa is restoring nutritional status. This is essential to prevent life-threatening complications associated with severe malnutrition, such as organ damage and cardiac issues. Addressing distorted body image, resolving family conflicts, and increasing social interactions are important aspects of treatment, but they are secondary to the critical need of restoring the patient's nutritional status to ensure their physical well-being and recovery.

2. A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is being assessed by a healthcare professional. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Delusions of grandeur
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors
• D. Periods of excessive sleeping

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hypervigilance is a common symptom. Hypervigilance refers to a state of increased alertness, awareness, and sensitivity to potential threats or danger. This heightened state of vigilance can manifest as being easily startled, having difficulty relaxing or sleeping, and constantly scanning the environment for signs of danger. It is an adaptive response to the trauma experienced and can significantly impact the individual's daily functioning. The other options are not typically associated with PTSD. Delusions of grandeur are more commonly seen in certain psychiatric disorders like bipolar disorder or schizophrenia. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not PTSD. Periods of excessive sleeping may be seen in conditions like depression, but they are not a hallmark symptom of PTSD.

3. Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for social anxiety disorder?

• A. Group therapy
• B. Behavioral rehearsal
• C. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• D. Medication management

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic intervention for social anxiety disorder. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety, leading to long-term symptom relief and improved coping strategies. Group therapy (choice A) can be beneficial as a complementary approach but may not be as effective as CBT for directly targeting individual cognitive and behavioral patterns. Behavioral rehearsal (choice B) is a technique used within CBT and not a standalone intervention for social anxiety disorder. Medication management (choice D) can be used as an adjunct to therapy in some cases but is not the first-line treatment for social anxiety disorder.

4. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.

5. Cabot has multiple symptoms of depression including mood reactivity, social phobia, anxiety, and overeating. With a history of mild hypertension, which classification of antidepressants dispensed as a transdermal patch would be a safe medication?

• A. Tricyclic antidepressants
• B. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
• C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
• D. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors dispensed as transdermal patches can be a safer option for patients with mild hypertension due to reduced systemic absorption compared to other forms of antidepressants, potentially minimizing cardiovascular effects associated with hypertension.

Similar Questions