ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?
- A. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
- B. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
- C. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
- D. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client's life. However, susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be accurately estimated without considering the individual's coping resources and available support systems. Positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can mitigate the risk of stress-related illnesses even in the face of significant life changes and losses. Choice A is incorrect because it makes a definitive statement about the client's state without considering individual coping mechanisms and support. Choice B is incorrect because a score of 110 does not necessarily mean no threat of stress-related illness, as individual factors play a crucial role. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes a positive outlook without acknowledging the potential impact of the experienced losses on stress levels.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following symptoms should the healthcare professional expect to observe?
- A. Restlessness
- B. Rapid heart rate
- C. Sweating
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rapid heart rate is a characteristic symptom of severe anxiety due to the body's fight-or-flight response being activated. This physiological response leads to an increased heart rate to prepare the body to deal with perceived threats. Healthcare professionals should be vigilant in monitoring and managing this symptom in clients experiencing severe anxiety.
3. Carolina is surprised when her patient does not show for a regularly scheduled appointment. When contacted, the patient states, <I don't need to come see you anymore. I have found a therapy app on my phone that I love.= How should Carolina respond to this news?
- A. That sounds exciting, would you be willing to visit and show me the app?
- B. At this time, there is no real evidence that the app can replace our therapy.
- C. I am not sure that is a good idea right now, we are so close to progress.
- D. Why would you think that is a better option than meeting with me?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Showing interest in the app can build rapport and allow for evaluation of its effectiveness.
4. A client has been prescribed diazepam (Valium) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- B. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
- C. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.
- D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking diazepam (Valium) as it can potentiate the sedative effects and increase the risk of side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness. Taking the medication with food may help reduce stomach upset, but avoiding alcohol is crucial to ensure safe and effective use of diazepam. Choice B is partially correct, as taking the medication with food can indeed help with stomach upset, but it is not as crucial as avoiding alcohol. Choice C is incorrect because abruptly stopping diazepam can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision. Choice D is incorrect as doubling the dose is dangerous and should never be done without healthcare provider approval.
5. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April's mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:
- A. Time-out is an important part of April's baseline discipline.
- B. Time-out is no longer an effective therapeutic measure.
- C. April enjoys time-out, and acts out to get some alone time.
- D. Time-out will need to be replaced with seclusion and restraint.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Frequent use of time-out has reduced its effectiveness as a therapeutic measure for April.
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