ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
- A. Haloperidol
- B. Fluoxetine
- C. Methylphenidate
- D. Clozapine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly prescribed to manage symptoms of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). It works by affecting certain chemicals in the brain to improve focus, attention span, and impulse control. Haloperidol, fluoxetine, and clozapine are not typically used as first-line treatments for ADHD. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, fluoxetine is an antidepressant, and clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic, each with different mechanisms of action and primary indications.
2. A nurse is assessing a patient with schizophrenia who is experiencing delusions. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Agree with the patient's delusions to avoid confrontation.
- B. Encourage the patient to explore the basis of the delusions.
- C. Engage the patient in reality-based activities.
- D. Ask the patient to explain the delusions in detail.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention when assessing a patient with schizophrenia experiencing delusions is to engage the patient in reality-based activities. This intervention helps distract the patient from the delusions and reorients them to the present, promoting grounding in reality. Choice A is incorrect because agreeing with delusions can reinforce them and hinder treatment. Choice B may exacerbate the delusions by delving deeper into their basis. Choice D may not be beneficial as it focuses solely on the delusions without addressing the need to ground the patient in reality.
3. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for this condition?
- A. Group therapy
- B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
- C. Psychoanalysis
- D. Family therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective therapeutic intervention for managing ADHD symptoms. CBT helps individuals with ADHD develop coping strategies, improve focus, organization, and time management skills, and address behavioral challenges effectively. Group therapy might not provide the specific skills training needed for ADHD management. Psychoanalysis focuses on exploring deeper unconscious processes and may not be as practical for addressing ADHD symptoms. Family therapy can be beneficial for family dynamics but may not directly target individual ADHD symptoms as effectively as CBT.
4. A healthcare professional is providing care for a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder. Which client behavior would the healthcare professional identify as characteristic of a manic episode?
- A. Sleeping excessively
- B. Excessive energy
- C. Decreased appetite
- D. Lack of interest in activities
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode in bipolar disorder, individuals often experience heightened energy levels, increased goal-directed activity, and may engage in risky behaviors. This excessive energy is a key characteristic of manic episodes. Choice A, sleeping excessively, is more characteristic of a depressive episode. Choice C, decreased appetite, can be seen in various mood disorders but is not specific to manic episodes. Choice D, lack of interest in activities, is more indicative of a depressive episode rather than a manic episode. It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize these signs to provide appropriate care and support to individuals with bipolar disorder.
5. In what significant way should the therapeutic environment differ for a client who has ingested LSD from that of a client who has ingested PCP?
- A. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. For PCP ingestion, place client on one-on-one intensive supervision.
- B. For LSD ingestion, place the client in restraints. For PCP ingestion, place the client on seizure precautions.
- C. For LSD ingestion, provide continual medieval simulation involving as many senses as possible. For PCP ingestion, provide continual high-level stimulation.
- D. For PCP ingestion, place the client on one-on-one intensive supervision. For LSD ingestion, maintain a regimen of limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When managing a client who has ingested PCP, it is crucial to provide one-on-one intensive supervision to ensure their safety and prevent any harm to themselves or others. This level of supervision is necessary due to the unpredictable and potentially dangerous effects of PCP. On the other hand, for a client who has ingested LSD, it is recommended to maintain a calm environment with limited interaction and minimal verbal stimulation. This approach aims to prevent exacerbating any adverse effects of LSD, such as anxiety or paranoia, by reducing external stimuli. Therefore, the correct approach is to provide one-on-one intensive supervision for PCP ingestion and limit interaction and verbal stimulation for LSD ingestion.
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