ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which intervention is most appropriate to address the client's delusions?
- A. Challenge the client's delusions directly.
- B. Provide evidence to disprove the delusions.
- C. Acknowledge the client's feelings without reinforcing the delusions.
- D. Ignore the client's delusions.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When caring for a client with schizophrenia experiencing delusions, the most appropriate intervention is to acknowledge the client's feelings without reinforcing the delusions. This approach helps maintain trust and communication, fostering a therapeutic relationship. Challenging the delusions directly can lead to increased distress and resistance from the client. Providing evidence to disprove the delusions may not be effective due to the deeply ingrained nature of the client's beliefs. Ignoring the delusions may make the client feel dismissed or unheard, which can hinder the therapeutic process.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a patient with bipolar disorder who is experiencing a manic episode. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage group activities to increase socialization.
- B. Provide a structured environment with limited stimuli.
- C. Allow the patient to engage in physical activities freely.
- D. Give the patient detailed and complex tasks to complete.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic episode, individuals with bipolar disorder may have heightened sensitivity to stimuli and may struggle with organization and decision-making. Providing a structured environment with limited stimuli can help reduce triggers and maintain a sense of control for the patient. It is essential to create a calm and predictable setting to support the individual in managing their symptoms effectively. Choice A is incorrect as group activities may overwhelm the patient due to increased stimuli. Choice C is not the most appropriate because unstructured physical activities may exacerbate the manic symptoms. Choice D is not recommended as detailed and complex tasks can be overwhelming and may contribute to increased stress and agitation in a manic episode.
3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
- B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
- C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
- D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.
4. When a husband accuses his wife of infidelity, which situation would indicate to the nurse the husband's use of the ego defense mechanism of projection?
- A. The husband cries and stamps his feet, demanding that his wife be true to her marriage vows.
- B. The husband ignores the wife's continued absence from the home.
- C. The husband has already admitted to having an affair with a coworker.
- D. The husband takes out his marital frustrations through employee abuse.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Projection is a defense mechanism where one attributes their unacceptable feelings or impulses to another person. In this scenario, the husband, by admitting to having an affair with a coworker, is projecting his infidelity onto his wife, indicating the use of the projection defense mechanism. Choice A is incorrect as it describes a different behavior, not projection. Choice B does not demonstrate projection but rather avoidance or denial. Choice D shows displacement of aggression, not projection.
5. A psychiatric nurse observes that a client diagnosed with schizophrenia is pacing up and down the corridor. The client is muttering to himself, and his hands are trembling. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Ask the client if he is hearing voices.
- B. Offer the client a PRN medication for anxiety.
- C. Encourage the client to participate in a relaxation exercise.
- D. Remove the client to a quieter environment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first action the nurse should take is to remove the client to a quieter environment. This intervention aims to reduce stimuli that may be contributing to the client's agitation and help create a calmer and more supportive setting for the client. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation as addressing the environmental factors should come first before exploring symptoms, offering medication, or engaging in relaxation exercises.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access