Nursing Elites

1. A client has been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Perfectionism
• B. Flexibility
• C. Generosity
• D. Spontaneity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder commonly exhibit perfectionism, a need for orderliness, and a preoccupation with details. This behavior often interferes with task completion and can impact interpersonal relationships. Choice A is correct because perfectionism is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder typically lack flexibility, may not display generosity, and tend to avoid spontaneity.

2. A client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote the client's safety?

• A. Implement a no-harm contract with the client.
• B. Monitor the client closely for signs of self-harm.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in recreational activities.
• D. Encourage the client to maintain a structured daily routine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with borderline personality disorder is admitted to a psychiatric unit, implementing a no-harm contract is a crucial intervention to promote the client's safety. A no-harm contract is a formal agreement between the client and the healthcare provider stating that the client commits to not harm themselves or others. This intervention helps in establishing boundaries and promoting safety by enhancing communication and accountability between the client and the healthcare team. Monitoring the client closely for signs of self-harm (Choice B) is important but does not directly address promoting safety through a formal agreement. Encouraging participation in recreational activities (Choice C) and maintaining a structured daily routine (Choice D) are beneficial interventions but may not directly address the immediate safety concerns of a client with borderline personality disorder.

3. During a routine health screening, a grieving widow whose husband died 15 months ago reports emptiness, a loss of self, difficulty thinking of the future, and anger at her dead husband. The nurse suggests bereavement counseling. The widow is most likely suffering from:

• A. Major depression
• B. Normal grieving
• C. Adjustment disorder
• D. Posttraumatic stress disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The widow's symptoms align more closely with an adjustment disorder rather than major depression, normal grieving, or posttraumatic stress disorder. The widow's prolonged struggle in coping with the loss, characterized by emptiness, loss of self, difficulty envisioning the future, and anger towards her deceased husband, indicates an inability to adapt to the loss. These symptoms are indicative of an adjustment disorder, which typically arises in response to a significant life stressor and persists beyond what is considered a normal grieving process. Bereavement counseling can help the widow navigate her emotions and coping strategies during this challenging period.

4. When assessing a patient with major depressive disorder, which symptom would most likely be observed?

• A. Euphoria
• B. Anhedonia
• C. Increased energy
• D. Racing thoughts

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anhedonia, the inability to feel pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable, is a hallmark symptom of major depressive disorder. Patients with major depressive disorder often experience a pervasive feeling of emptiness and loss of interest in activities they used to find pleasurable. Euphoria, increased energy, and racing thoughts are more commonly associated with conditions like bipolar disorder rather than major depressive disorder.

5. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for this condition?

• A. Group therapy
• B. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• C. Psychoanalysis
• D. Family therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most effective therapeutic intervention for managing ADHD symptoms. CBT helps individuals with ADHD develop coping strategies, improve focus, organization, and time management skills, and address behavioral challenges effectively. Group therapy might not provide the specific skills training needed for ADHD management. Psychoanalysis focuses on exploring deeper unconscious processes and may not be as practical for addressing ADHD symptoms. Family therapy can be beneficial for family dynamics but may not directly target individual ADHD symptoms as effectively as CBT.

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