Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which finding should the nurse expect?

• A. Hypervigilance
• B. Insomnia
• C. Flashbacks
• D. Suicidal ideation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with PTSD commonly exhibit symptoms such as hypervigilance, insomnia, flashbacks, difficulty concentrating, and increased irritability. Hypervigilance refers to an enhanced state of awareness and alertness, often seen in individuals with PTSD as they are constantly on guard for potential threats. Insomnia is a common sleep disturbance associated with PTSD, where individuals may have trouble falling or staying asleep. Flashbacks involve re-experiencing the traumatic event as if it is occurring in the present moment. Suicidal ideation, while a serious concern in mental health, is not a hallmark symptom specifically associated with PTSD. Therefore, the correct finding that the nurse should expect when assessing a client diagnosed with PTSD is hypervigilance.

2. A client has been prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for depression. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime to prevent daytime drowsiness.
• B. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with food to prevent stomach upset.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you start feeling better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid consuming alcohol while taking escitalopram (Lexapro). Alcohol can potentiate side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness when combined with this medication. Choice A is incorrect because escitalopram is usually taken in the morning due to its potential to cause insomnia if taken at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect because taking the medication with or without food does not significantly affect its absorption or side effects. Choice D is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue taking the medication even if they start feeling better, as abruptly stopping an antidepressant can lead to withdrawal symptoms and a relapse of depression.

3. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?

• A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
• B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
• C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
• D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.

4. A healthcare provider is evaluating a client who is taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) for depression. Which symptom should the healthcare provider identify as an adverse effect that requires immediate attention?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Weight gain
• C. Blurred vision
• D. Suicidal thoughts

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Suicidal thoughts are a serious adverse effect associated with SSRIs and require immediate attention. This symptom is critical as it can increase the risk of self-harm or suicide in individuals taking these medications. Increased appetite and weight gain are common side effects of SSRIs but do not require immediate attention. Blurred vision is not a typical adverse effect of SSRIs, making it an incorrect choice. Healthcare providers must promptly recognize and address suicidal thoughts to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the provider expect the client to exhibit?

• A. A lack of remorse for wrongdoing
• B. A fear of gaining weight
• C. A need for constant reassurance
• D. A willingness to take responsibility for actions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with antisocial personality disorder typically exhibit a lack of remorse for their actions. They may disregard the rights of others, engage in deceitful and manipulative behaviors, and show a consistent pattern of irresponsibility and disregard for social norms. This behavior is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical behaviors associated with antisocial personality disorder. Fear of gaining weight is more indicative of an eating disorder rather than antisocial personality disorder. Needing constant reassurance is not a common trait of individuals with antisocial personality disorder. Additionally, individuals with this disorder often avoid taking responsibility for their actions.

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