ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. When assessing a client experiencing severe anxiety, which symptom should the nurse expect to observe?
- A. Restlessness
- B. Rapid heart rate
- C. Sweating
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is experiencing severe anxiety, a rapid heart rate is a common physiological response. This increased heart rate is due to the body's fight-or-flight response, where adrenaline is released, causing the heart to beat faster. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial in assessing and managing their anxiety. Restlessness (choice A) can also be present in anxiety but is more of a behavioral manifestation rather than a physiological symptom. Sweating (choice C) can occur in anxiety, but it is not as specific or consistent as a rapid heart rate. Dry mouth (choice D) is associated with anxiety but is not as immediate or directly linked to the body's physiological response to stress as a rapid heart rate.
2. Which statement about the concept of psychoses is most accurate?
- A. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware that their behaviors are maladaptive.
- B. Individuals experiencing psychoses experience little distress.
- C. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware of experiencing psychological problems.
- D. Individuals experiencing psychoses are based in reality.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most accurate statement about psychoses is that individuals experiencing it often exhibit limited distress because they are not fully aware of their altered perception of reality. They may not recognize that their behaviors are maladaptive or acknowledge the presence of psychological issues. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with psychoses may not be aware that their behaviors are maladaptive. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with psychoses may not have insight into their psychological problems. Choice D is incorrect because individuals with psychoses often struggle to differentiate between reality and their altered perceptions.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Periods of elevated mood
- B. Decreased need for sleep
- C. Flight of ideas
- D. Anhedonia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Findings in a client with bipolar disorder typically include periods of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and flight of ideas. Anhedonia, characterized by the inability to experience pleasure, is more commonly associated with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not expect anhedonia in a client with suspected bipolar disorder. The other choices are characteristic features of bipolar disorder, such as mania or hypomania.
4. A client prescribed lithium for bipolar disorder is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should avoid eating aged cheeses and processed meats.
- B. I need to maintain a consistent sodium intake.
- C. I should drink plenty of fluids to stay hydrated.
- D. I can take over-the-counter medications without consulting my healthcare provider.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Taking over-the-counter medications without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended for clients on lithium therapy as there can be potential interactions between lithium and certain medications. It is crucial for clients on lithium to always consult their healthcare provider before taking any over-the-counter medications to ensure the safety and effectiveness of their treatment. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements that align with managing lithium therapy, emphasizing the importance of dietary restrictions and adequate hydration, as well as monitoring sodium intake to maintain the therapeutic effects of lithium.
5. For a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who spends several hours a day washing her hands, which type of therapy is most appropriate?
- A. Exposure and response prevention
- B. Dialectical behavior therapy
- C. Family therapy
- D. Interpersonal therapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is the most appropriate therapy for managing OCD. ERP involves exposing the patient to anxiety-provoking stimuli (such as touching dirty objects) and preventing the compulsive response (hand washing), thus helping the patient learn to tolerate the anxiety without performing the ritualistic behavior. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) focuses more on emotional regulation and interpersonal skills, making it less suitable for directly addressing OCD symptoms. Family therapy and interpersonal therapy may be beneficial for other conditions or relationship issues but are not specifically designed to target OCD symptoms like ERP.
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