a client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia is to provide reality-based feedback about the hallucinations. By providing reality-based feedback, the nurse helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not, which can help decrease the distress and impact of the hallucinations on the client's perception of reality. Encouraging the client to express feelings (Choice A) may not directly address the hallucinations. Distracting the client (Choice B) may temporarily alleviate the symptoms but does not help the client differentiate reality from hallucinations. Encouraging the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice D) may not be effective as the client may struggle to do so without appropriate guidance.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the provider expect the client to exhibit?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with antisocial personality disorder typically exhibit a lack of remorse for their actions. They may disregard the rights of others, engage in deceitful and manipulative behaviors, and show a consistent pattern of irresponsibility and disregard for social norms. This behavior is a key characteristic of this disorder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical behaviors associated with antisocial personality disorder. Fear of gaining weight is more indicative of an eating disorder rather than antisocial personality disorder. Needing constant reassurance is not a common trait of individuals with antisocial personality disorder. Additionally, individuals with this disorder often avoid taking responsibility for their actions.

3. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to participate in group therapy is the most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing a depressive episode. Group therapy provides a supportive environment where the client can share experiences, learn coping strategies, and receive emotional support from peers and mental health professionals. It can help reduce feelings of isolation, improve social skills, and enhance overall well-being. Group therapy also promotes a sense of belonging and understanding, which are essential for individuals dealing with bipolar disorder and depressive symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are not the most appropriate interventions for a client experiencing a depressive episode in bipolar disorder. Encouraging the client to avoid physical activity may worsen their symptoms, promoting social activities may not address the underlying issues effectively, and setting goals may be overwhelming during a depressive episode.

4. For a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who spends several hours a day washing her hands, which type of therapy is most appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is the most appropriate therapy for managing OCD. ERP involves exposing the patient to anxiety-provoking stimuli (such as touching dirty objects) and preventing the compulsive response (hand washing), thus helping the patient learn to tolerate the anxiety without performing the ritualistic behavior. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) focuses more on emotional regulation and interpersonal skills, making it less suitable for directly addressing OCD symptoms. Family therapy and interpersonal therapy may be beneficial for other conditions or relationship issues but are not specifically designed to target OCD symptoms like ERP.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

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