Nursing Elites

1. For a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who spends several hours a day washing her hands, which type of therapy is most appropriate?

• A. Exposure and response prevention
• B. Dialectical behavior therapy
• C. Family therapy
• D. Interpersonal therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is the most appropriate therapy for managing OCD. ERP involves exposing the patient to anxiety-provoking stimuli (such as touching dirty objects) and preventing the compulsive response (hand washing), thus helping the patient learn to tolerate the anxiety without performing the ritualistic behavior. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) focuses more on emotional regulation and interpersonal skills, making it less suitable for directly addressing OCD symptoms. Family therapy and interpersonal therapy may be beneficial for other conditions or relationship issues but are not specifically designed to target OCD symptoms like ERP.

2. After 1 week of continuous mental confusion, an elderly African American client is admitted with a preliminary diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder due to dementia. Which statement would cause the nurse to question this diagnosis?

• A. There has been no triiodothyronine or thyroxine level evaluation ordered
• B. Neurocognitive disorders do not typically occur in African American clients
• C. The symptoms presented are more indicative of parkinsonism
• D. Dementia does not develop suddenly

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

3. A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a patient with major depression at the county clinic. Since the patient has a mild intellectual disability, the nurse would question which classification of antidepressant drugs:

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
• B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
• C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are less suitable for patients with intellectual disabilities due to the need for dietary restrictions and close monitoring. These restrictions can be challenging for patients with mild intellectual disabilities to follow, making this drug class a concern for this patient population.

4. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which of the following findings shouldn't the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Restlessness
• B. Fatigue
• C. Excessive worry
• D. Mania

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In clients with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), common symptoms include restlessness, fatigue, excessive worry, and irritability. Mania is not typically associated with GAD; instead, it is a key feature of bipolar disorder. Therefore, the healthcare provider should not expect to find mania in a client with GAD.

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