Nursing Elites

1. For a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who spends several hours a day washing her hands, which type of therapy is most appropriate?

• A. Exposure and response prevention
• B. Dialectical behavior therapy
• C. Family therapy
• D. Interpersonal therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is the most appropriate therapy for managing OCD. ERP involves exposing the patient to anxiety-provoking stimuli (such as touching dirty objects) and preventing the compulsive response (hand washing), thus helping the patient learn to tolerate the anxiety without performing the ritualistic behavior. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) focuses more on emotional regulation and interpersonal skills, making it less suitable for directly addressing OCD symptoms. Family therapy and interpersonal therapy may be beneficial for other conditions or relationship issues but are not specifically designed to target OCD symptoms like ERP.

2. A client has been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which is an appropriate short-term goal for the client?

• A. The client will report a decrease in depressive symptoms.
• B. The client will establish a sleep routine.
• C. The client will improve social interactions.
• D. The client will set realistic goals for the future.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting a goal for the client to report a decrease in depressive symptoms is appropriate as it is specific, measurable, and achievable in the short term. Monitoring changes in depressive symptoms provides valuable feedback on the effectiveness of the treatment plan. While establishing a sleep routine, improving social interactions, and setting realistic goals for the future are important aspects of recovery, they are more suitable as intermediate or long-term goals. In the context of short-term goals, focusing on symptom reduction can provide immediate feedback on the client's progress and help adjust the treatment plan accordingly.

3. Which mood stabilizer is commonly prescribed for bipolar disorder?

• A. Sertraline
• B. Lithium
• C. Clozapine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is a well-established mood stabilizer commonly prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to control manic episodes, stabilize mood swings, and reduce the risk of relapse in individuals with this condition. Sertraline is an antidepressant commonly used for treating depression, while Clozapine and Haloperidol are antipsychotic medications used for different psychiatric conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it is specifically indicated and effective for bipolar disorder.

4. Child protective services have removed 10-year-old Christopher from his parents' home due to neglect. Christopher reveals to the nurse that he considers the woman next door his 'nice' mom, that he loves school, and gets above-average grades. The strongest explanation of this response is:

• A. Temperament
• B. Genetic factors
• C. Resilience
• D. Paradoxical effects of neglect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Christopher's positive outlook, strong school performance, and forming a bond with the neighbor indicate resilience. Resilience refers to the ability to adapt and thrive despite facing adversity, such as being removed from his parents' home due to neglect. His ability to maintain a positive attitude and excel in school despite the challenging circumstances highlights his resilience.

5. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

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