Nursing Elites

1. For a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who spends several hours a day washing her hands, which type of therapy is most appropriate?

• A. Exposure and response prevention
• B. Dialectical behavior therapy
• C. Family therapy
• D. Interpersonal therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is the most appropriate therapy for managing OCD. ERP involves exposing the patient to anxiety-provoking stimuli (such as touching dirty objects) and preventing the compulsive response (hand washing), thus helping the patient learn to tolerate the anxiety without performing the ritualistic behavior. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) focuses more on emotional regulation and interpersonal skills, making it less suitable for directly addressing OCD symptoms. Family therapy and interpersonal therapy may be beneficial for other conditions or relationship issues but are not specifically designed to target OCD symptoms like ERP.

2. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

3. During an assessment, a client is demonstrating symptoms of moderate anxiety. Which of the following symptoms would be indicative of moderate anxiety?

• A. Fidgeting
• B. Laughing inappropriately
• C. Palpitations
• D. Nail biting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Palpitations are a common physical symptom seen in clients experiencing moderate anxiety. Fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting can also indicate heightened stress levels. It's important for healthcare providers to recognize these signs and provide appropriate support. While anxiety can manifest in various ways, other indicators of moderate anxiety may include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbance. It's crucial for healthcare providers to assess these symptoms to provide effective care and interventions. Laughing inappropriately and nail biting are more commonly associated with nervousness or social discomfort, while fidgeting may signal mild anxiety.

4. In the care plan of a male patient diagnosed with a dissociative disorder, the nursing diagnosis of ineffective coping is included. Which behavior demonstrated by the patient supports this nursing diagnosis?

• A. Has no memory of the physical abuse he endured.
• B. Using both alcohol and marijuana.
• C. Often reports being unaware of surroundings.
• D. Reports feelings of 'not really being here.'

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because using substances like alcohol and marijuana can be a sign of ineffective coping mechanisms in patients with dissociative disorders. Substance abuse is often used as a maladaptive way to cope with stress, trauma, or other underlying issues. Choices A, C, and D may be related to dissociative symptoms but do not directly reflect ineffective coping behaviors as substance abuse does.

5. During a routine health screening, a grieving widow whose husband died 15 months ago reports emptiness, a loss of self, difficulty thinking of the future, and anger at her dead husband. The nurse suggests bereavement counseling. The widow is most likely suffering from:

• A. Major depression
• B. Normal grieving
• C. Adjustment disorder
• D. Posttraumatic stress disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The widow's symptoms align more closely with an adjustment disorder rather than major depression, normal grieving, or posttraumatic stress disorder. The widow's prolonged struggle in coping with the loss, characterized by emptiness, loss of self, difficulty envisioning the future, and anger towards her deceased husband, indicates an inability to adapt to the loss. These symptoms are indicative of an adjustment disorder, which typically arises in response to a significant life stressor and persists beyond what is considered a normal grieving process. Bereavement counseling can help the widow navigate her emotions and coping strategies during this challenging period.

Similar Questions