ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. In the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), what medication is frequently prescribed as a first-line treatment?
- A. Clonazepam
- B. Buspirone
- C. Propranolol
- D. Hydroxyzine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Buspirone is often chosen as a first-line treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) due to its efficacy and favorable side effect profile. Unlike benzodiazepines such as clonazepam (A), buspirone does not carry the risk of tolerance, dependence, or withdrawal symptoms, making it a preferred choice. While propranolol (C) and hydroxyzine (D) are sometimes used for anxiety, they are not typically considered first-line treatments for GAD.
2. A client is experiencing progressive changes in memory that have interfered with personal, social, and occupational functioning. The client exhibits poor judgment and has a short attention span. The nurse recognizes these as classic signs of which condition?
- A. Delirium
- B. Mania
- C. Parkinsonism
- D. Alzheimer’s
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's presentation of progressive memory changes, poor judgment, and attention deficits align with classic signs of Alzheimer's disease. Alzheimer's is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cognitive decline that significantly impacts daily functioning. While delirium and mania may present with cognitive changes, Alzheimer's is specifically associated with progressive memory loss and cognitive impairment over time.
3. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?
- A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
- B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
- C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
- D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.
4. A patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Sexual dysfunction
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly associated with sexual dysfunction as a side effect. This adverse effect includes decreased libido, delayed orgasm, and erectile dysfunction. Educating patients about this potential side effect is crucial to manage expectations and consider appropriate interventions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as SSRIs are not typically associated with hypertension, diarrhea, or weight gain as common side effects.
5. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the delusions.
- B. Provide reality-based feedback to the client.
- C. Distract the client from the delusions.
- D. Encourage the client to discuss the delusions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions, providing reality-based feedback is considered an effective intervention to address this symptom. This approach helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not real, assisting them in managing their delusions and promoting their overall well-being. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the delusions does not help the client in distinguishing reality from delusions. Choice C is incorrect as distraction may only provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to discuss the delusions may reinforce or intensify them rather than help in managing them effectively.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access