Nursing Elites

1. A client is experiencing a panic attack. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Remain with the client and offer reassurance.
• B. Administer an anti-anxiety medication as prescribed.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in physical activity.
• D. Encourage the client to breathe deeply and slowly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a panic attack, the immediate priority for the nurse is to provide support and reassurance to the client. Remaining with the client helps establish a sense of safety and trust, which can help calm the client during an episode of panic. Administering medication, encouraging physical activity, and deep breathing techniques are beneficial interventions, but offering reassurance and support should be the initial step to address the immediate emotional distress and anxiety experienced by the client.

2. A client is diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the care plan? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Allow the client to perform rituals initially
• B. Set limits on the time allowed for rituals
• C. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings
• D. Provide a structured schedule of activities

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Interventions for a client with OCD should include allowing the client to perform rituals initially, setting limits on the time allowed for rituals, encouraging the client to verbalize feelings, and providing a structured schedule of activities. Allowing the client to perform rituals is an essential part of managing OCD and should not be restricted in the initial stages of care. Setting limits on the time for rituals helps prevent excessive engagement in them. Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings promotes emotional expression and processing. Providing a structured schedule of activities helps establish routine and predictability, which can be beneficial for individuals with OCD.

3. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

4. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

5. Which of the following is an uncommon symptom of schizophrenia?

• A. Delusions
• B. Fatigue
• C. Disorganized speech
• D. Catatonia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Common symptoms of schizophrenia include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and catatonia. Fatigue is not typically considered a direct symptom of schizophrenia. It is important to focus on symptoms directly related to the disorder when identifying schizophrenia.

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