which of the following are identified as psychoneurotic responses to severe anxiety as they appear in the dsm 5
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ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Which of the following is identified as a psychoneurotic response to severe anxiety as it appears in the DSM-5?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Somatic symptom disorder. Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by preoccupation with physical symptoms for which there is no demonstrable organic pathology. One of the diagnostic criteria is a high level of anxiety about health concerns or illness. In the DSM-5, somatic symptom disorders are classified under the category of somatic symptom and related disorders, which encompass conditions where psychological factors play a significant role in the development, exacerbation, or maintenance of physical symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Grief responses, psychosis, and bipolar disorder are not specifically categorized as psychoneurotic responses to severe anxiety in the DSM-5.

2. When attempting to determine a teenager's mental health resilience, what assessment question should the nurse ask that is not applicable?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing a teenager's mental health resilience involves exploring coping mechanisms, support systems, and attitudes towards seeking help. Option D is not relevant to assessing resilience but rather focuses on the comparison between seeking advice from a counselor versus the nurse, which doesn't directly gauge the teenager's resilience.

3. When discussing the main differences between narcolepsy and obstructive sleep apnea syndrome, what should the nurse highlight?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Narcolepsy is characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness and sudden attacks of sleep, while individuals with narcolepsy often feel refreshed after a brief nap. In contrast, obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is marked by pauses in breathing or shallow breathing during sleep, leading to fragmented sleep and excessive daytime sleepiness. Therefore, the correct answer is that individuals with narcolepsy awaken from a nap feeling rested and replenished, which is a key distinguishing feature from obstructive sleep apnea syndrome.

4. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

5. Why is it important to establish a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the beginning of treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Establishing a contract with a client with an eating disorder at the start of treatment is crucial to involve the client in decision-making processes. By engaging the client in decision-making, it enhances their sense of control over their treatment, which can lead to increased cooperation and better treatment outcomes. This collaborative approach empowers the client and fosters a therapeutic alliance between the client and the healthcare provider, rather than excluding the family or causing disruptions. It focuses on addressing both the physical and emotional needs of the client, ensuring a comprehensive treatment plan.

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