Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is identified as a psychoneurotic response to severe anxiety as it appears in the DSM-5?

• A. Somatic symptom disorder
• B. Grief responses
• C. Psychosis
• D. Bipolar disorder

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Somatic symptom disorder. Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by preoccupation with physical symptoms for which there is no demonstrable organic pathology. One of the diagnostic criteria is a high level of anxiety about health concerns or illness. In the DSM-5, somatic symptom disorders are classified under the category of somatic symptom and related disorders, which encompass conditions where psychological factors play a significant role in the development, exacerbation, or maintenance of physical symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Grief responses, psychosis, and bipolar disorder are not specifically categorized as psychoneurotic responses to severe anxiety in the DSM-5.

2. A client has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What information should the nurse include in discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication only when feeling depressed.
• D. Report any unusual side effects to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking fluoxetine (Prozac) due to potential interactions. Alcohol consumption can increase the risk of certain side effects and may reduce the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine is usually taken daily regardless of the client's mood. Choice D is not the priority teaching point; while reporting side effects is important, avoiding alcohol is critical due to the potential interactions.

3. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

4. A patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is prescribed prazosin. The nurse understands that this medication is used to treat which symptom of PTSD?

• A. Flashbacks
• B. Nightmares
• C. Hypervigilance
• D. Depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prazosin is a medication often prescribed to manage nightmares in patients with PTSD. It works by blocking the action of adrenaline on specific receptors, which helps in reducing the intensity and frequency of nightmares. While flashbacks, hypervigilance, and depression are also common symptoms of PTSD, prazosin is specifically indicated for nightmares associated with the disorder. Flashbacks are typically addressed through therapies like cognitive-behavioral therapy, hypervigilance may be managed through counseling and coping strategies, and depression may necessitate antidepressant medications or therapy tailored for depression.

5. What information should the nurse provide in patient education for a patient prescribed sertraline for major depressive disorder?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. It may take several weeks to feel the full effect.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit while taking this medication.
• D. Regular blood tests are necessary to monitor levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients prescribed sertraline for major depressive disorder should be educated that it may take several weeks before experiencing the full therapeutic effects of the medication. This delay in onset of action is common with antidepressants like sertraline, and patients need to be aware of this to manage their expectations and continue with the treatment regimen. It's important for the patient to understand that consistent adherence to the prescribed dosage is crucial, even if the full effects are not immediately apparent. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, avoiding grapefruit, and regular blood tests are not specific education points related to the expected timeframe for therapeutic effects of sertraline.

Similar Questions