which neurotransmitter is primarily implicated in the development of schizophrenia
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ATI Mental Health Practice A

1. Which neurotransmitter is primarily implicated in the development of schizophrenia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is dopamine. Dopamine dysregulation is a key factor in the development of schizophrenia. Excess dopamine activity in certain brain regions is associated with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions. Dopaminergic medications that reduce dopamine levels are often used to manage these symptoms, further supporting the role of dopamine in schizophrenia. Serotonin (Choice A) is more commonly associated with mood regulation and is implicated in depression and anxiety disorders. Norepinephrine (Choice B) is involved in the body's 'fight or flight' response and is linked to conditions like anxiety and PTSD. Acetylcholine (Choice D) plays a role in muscle movement and memory but is not primarily implicated in schizophrenia.

2. Identical twins vary in their responses to stress. One twin may become anxious and irritable, while the other may withdraw and cry. How should the nurse explain these different reactions to stress to the parents?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individual responses to stress can vary significantly due to factors such as perception, past experiences, and environmental influences, in addition to genetic factors. It is not unusual for identical twins to exhibit different reactions to stress as their individual personalities and coping mechanisms play a significant role in how they respond to stressful situations. Choice A is the correct answer because it acknowledges the variability in responses to stress among individuals. Choice B is incorrect because it wrongly labels differing reactions in identical twins as abnormal, when in reality, it is a natural phenomenon. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes that identical twins should always have the same temperament and response to stress, which is not always the case. Choice D is incorrect because it oversimplifies the complex interplay between genetic and environmental factors in shaping responses to stress.

3. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude from the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should not include the instruction to discourage the client from washing her hands in the teaching for a client prescribed an antidepressant. This instruction is not relevant to the medication regimen. Instead, the nurse should educate the client that it may take several weeks for the medication to take effect, to avoid alcohol, not to discontinue the medication abruptly, and that there may be an increase in energy before mood improves. Regular blood tests are not typically required for most antidepressants.

4. Why is the DSM-5 useful in the practice of psychiatric nursing?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a crucial tool in psychiatric nursing as it guides nurses in making accurate and reliable medical diagnoses of mental health conditions. Using the DSM-5 ensures that diagnoses are standardized, improving the quality and precision of care for clients. While the DSM-5 also supports a holistic view, interdisciplinary communication, and care plan development, its primary role in psychiatric nursing is to assist clinicians in diagnosing mental health conditions accurately.

5. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is often used to treat which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is a widely used therapeutic approach effective in treating various mental health conditions. While CBT can be beneficial for different disorders, it is particularly well-suited for anxiety-related conditions like generalized anxiety disorder. CBT focuses on identifying and modifying negative thought patterns and behaviors contributing to anxiety, making it a suitable choice for treating generalized anxiety disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because CBT is not typically the first-line treatment for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, or posttraumatic stress disorder, although it may be used as a part of a comprehensive treatment plan.

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