Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a common side effect of benzodiazepines prescribed for anxiety?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Weight gain
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Drowsiness is a common side effect of benzodiazepines prescribed for anxiety. Benzodiazepines work by depressing the central nervous system, which can lead to drowsiness as a side effect. This sedative effect is often desired in the treatment of anxiety disorders, but individuals should be cautious when engaging in activities that require alertness, such as driving, while taking these medications. Insomnia, weight gain, and increased appetite are not typically associated with benzodiazepines; instead, drowsiness and sedation are more common side effects.

2. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) and is receiving education from a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

• A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. It may take several weeks for this medication to be effective.
• C. I should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. I should avoid eating aged cheeses and processed meats.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sertraline (Zoloft) may take several weeks to be effective, so it is important for the client to be informed about this timeframe. This medication does not need to be taken on an empty stomach, but it can be taken with or without food. Choice A is a good practice for many medications but not specifically related to sertraline (Zoloft). Choice D is not directly related to sertraline (Zoloft) but pertains to dietary restrictions when taking MAOIs due to potential interactions with tyramine.

3. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?

• A. Pacing and restlessness
• B. Verbal threats
• C. History of violence
• D. Substance abuse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.

4. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

5. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

• A. Hallucinations
• B. Delusions
• C. Alogia
• D. Paranoia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alogia, also known as poverty of speech, is a negative symptom of schizophrenia. It refers to a reduction in the amount of speech or the feeling that one has nothing to say. Hallucinations and delusions are positive symptoms, characterized by the presence of abnormal experiences and beliefs. Paranoia is a symptom involving intense anxious or fearful feelings, which is not classified as a negative symptom of schizophrenia.

Similar Questions