Nursing Elites

1. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

2. A client has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid driving until you know how the medication affects you.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam (Ativan) can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so the client should avoid driving until they know how the medication affects them. This instruction is crucial for ensuring the client's safety and preventing any potential accidents or harm. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it contradicts the usual recommendation of taking lorazepam with or without food. Choice D is incorrect and dangerous advice as doubling the dose of lorazepam can lead to overdose and serious complications.

3. When preparing a teaching plan for a client with generalized anxiety disorder, which information should a healthcare professional include?

• A. Avoiding caffeine and other stimulants
• B. Engaging in regular physical activity
• C. Practicing relaxation techniques
• D. Keeping a journal of anxiety triggers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Practicing relaxation techniques. This is a crucial aspect of managing generalized anxiety disorder. Techniques like deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, and mindfulness can effectively reduce anxiety levels and promote calmness. These techniques provide valuable coping mechanisms to help individuals with generalized anxiety disorder deal with stress and anxiety.\nChoice A, avoiding caffeine and other stimulants, can be beneficial but is not as central to managing generalized anxiety disorder as practicing relaxation techniques.\nChoice B, engaging in regular physical activity, is also helpful for managing anxiety, but relaxation techniques are more specific and targeted for addressing symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder.\nChoice D, keeping a journal of anxiety triggers, may be a useful strategy to identify triggers but does not directly address the immediate management of anxiety symptoms, unlike practicing relaxation techniques.

4. In assessing a patient for signs of serotonin syndrome, which of the following symptoms would be consistent with this condition?

• A. Hypotension, bradycardia, hypothermia
• B. Hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia
• C. Hypotension, tachycardia, hypothermia
• D. Hypertension, bradycardia, hyperthermia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Serotonin syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms: hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperthermia. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia (choice A) are not typical findings in serotonin syndrome. Hypotension, tachycardia, and hypothermia (choice C) are also not consistent with serotonin syndrome. Hypertension, bradycardia, and hyperthermia (choice D) do not align with the characteristic symptoms of serotonin syndrome. Recognizing the key symptoms of serotonin syndrome is crucial for prompt identification and intervention to prevent serious complications.

5. A psychiatric nurse observes that a client diagnosed with schizophrenia is pacing up and down the corridor. The client is muttering to himself, and his hands are trembling. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Ask the client if he is hearing voices.
• B. Offer the client a PRN medication for anxiety.
• C. Encourage the client to participate in a relaxation exercise.
• D. Remove the client to a quieter environment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The first action the nurse should take is to remove the client to a quieter environment. This intervention aims to reduce stimuli that may be contributing to the client's agitation and help create a calmer and more supportive setting for the client. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation as addressing the environmental factors should come first before exploring symptoms, offering medication, or engaging in relaxation exercises.

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