Nursing Elites

1. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Amenorrhea
• B. Lanugo
• C. Hypotension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Findings in a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa include amenorrhea, lanugo, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. In anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances often lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, due to malnutrition and potential purging behaviors. Hyperkalemia, high potassium levels, is not a common finding in individuals with anorexia nervosa.

3. Which characteristic in an adolescent female is sometimes associated with the prodromal phase of schizophrenia?

• A. Constantly afraid another student will steal her belongings.
• B. An unusual interest in numbers and specific topics.
• C. Demonstrates no interest in athletics or organized sports.
• D. Appears more comfortable among males.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During the prodromal phase of schizophrenia, individuals may exhibit subtle changes in behavior or interests. An unusual interest in numbers and specific topics may be a sign of cognitive disturbances that can precede the onset of schizophrenia. While the other choices may also be observed in adolescents, an unusual interest in numbers and specific topics is more specifically linked to potential prodromal symptoms of schizophrenia.

4. During an intake assessment, a healthcare professional asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, 'I'm here for my heart, not my head problems.' What is the healthcare professional's best response?

• A. It's just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these same questions.
• B. Why are you concerned about these types of questions?
• C. Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions.
• D. We can skip these questions, if you like. It isn't imperative that we complete this section.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The healthcare professional should educate the client on the negative effects of excessive stress on medical conditions. Understanding the interconnectedness of physical and mental health is crucial for providing holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't address the importance of psychosocial aspects. Choice B is wrong as it doesn't provide relevant information about the impact of psychological factors on health. Choice D is incorrect because skipping questions would lead to an incomplete assessment, potentially missing crucial information affecting the client's overall health outcomes.

5. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• B. Psychoanalysis
• C. Medication management
• D. Group therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

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