Nursing Elites

1. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.

2. Which statement made by the nurse demonstrates the best understanding of nonverbal communication?

• A. The patient's verbal and nonverbal communication is often different.
• B. When my patient responds to my question, I check for congruence between verbal and nonverbal communication to help validate the response.
• C. If a patient is slumped in the chair, I can be sure he's angry or depressed.
• D. It's easier to understand verbal communication than nonverbal communication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking for congruence between verbal and nonverbal communication helps validate the patient's response.

3. Maggie, a child in protective custody, is found to have an imaginary friend, Holly. Her foster family shares this information with the nurse. The nurse teaches the family members about children who have suffered trauma and knows her teaching was effective when the foster mother states:

• A. I understand that imaginary friends are abnormal.
• B. I understand that imaginary friends are a maladaptive behavior.
• C. I understand that imaginary friends are a coping mechanism.
• D. I understand that we should tell the child that imaginary friends are unacceptable.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Imaginary friends can serve as a coping mechanism for children, especially those who have experienced trauma. They can provide comfort and a sense of control in challenging situations. Acknowledging and supporting the child's imaginary friend can be beneficial in their emotional healing and development.

4. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Ask the client to describe the content of the hallucinations.
• B. Instruct the client to ignore the hallucinations.
• C. Administer prescribed antipsychotic medication.
• D. Engage the client in reality-based activities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial intervention for a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, especially in schizophrenia, is to assess the content of the hallucinations. By asking the client to describe the hallucinations, the nurse can determine if they are command hallucinations that might pose a risk. This assessment is crucial in guiding further appropriate interventions to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Instructing the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice B) may not be effective, as the hallucinations are real to the client. Administering antipsychotic medication (Choice C) may be necessary but should come after assessing the situation. Engaging the client in reality-based activities (Choice D) is important but not the first priority when dealing with auditory hallucinations.

5. A client has been prescribed sertraline for depression, and the nurse is providing discharge instructions. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid foods high in sodium.
• B. Avoid foods high in calcium.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients prescribed sertraline should avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Sertraline, an antidepressant belonging to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class, can interact with tyramine-rich foods, potentially causing a dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no specific dietary restriction related to sodium, calcium, or potassium intake when taking sertraline.

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