a patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Mental Health Practice A

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. A client is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to verbalize feelings of anxiety is an appropriate intervention for severe anxiety. Verbalizing emotions can help the client process their feelings and reduce the intensity of anxiety. It promotes emotional expression and may lead to a better understanding of the underlying causes of anxiety, paving the way for effective coping strategies. Choices A, C, and D are not the most appropriate interventions for severe anxiety. While group therapy can be beneficial, it may not be suitable for someone experiencing severe anxiety. Limiting caffeine intake and avoiding stressful situations are helpful strategies but may not address the root of the severe anxiety or provide immediate relief.

3. Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.

4. A client has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft) for depression. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking sertraline (Zoloft). Alcohol can exacerbate the side effects of the medication, such as drowsiness and dizziness, and may also decrease the effectiveness of the treatment for depression. Choice A is incorrect as sertraline is usually taken in the morning. Choice C is not a specific instruction related to the medication. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping sertraline can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

5. Which intervention should the nurse implement when caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior, it is crucial to monitor vital signs frequently to ensure the patient's physical health is stable. Providing nutrition, such as milkshakes and protein drinks, is essential to meet the patient's dietary needs. Diminishing environmental stimuli by reducing the volume on the television and dimming bright lights can help create a calmer environment. However, keeping the patient distracted with group-oriented activities may not be the most appropriate intervention as it could potentially exacerbate the manic behavior by overstimulating the patient. Therefore, this choice is the one that doesn't apply in managing manic behavior effectively.

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