Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. A nursing instructor is discussing diseases of adaptation with students and when they are likely to occur. Which student response indicates that learning has occurred?

• A. When an individual has limited experience managing stress
• B. When an individual inherits adaptive genes
• C. When an individual faces pre-existing conditions that worsen stress
• D. When an individual's physiological and psychological resources are depleted

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During the stage of exhaustion in the general adaptation syndrome, an individual's physiological and psychological resources become depleted, leading to a reduced capacity to adapt effectively. This depletion of resources is when diseases of adaptation, such as stress-related disorders, are more likely to occur. Choices A, B, and C do not reflect an accurate understanding of diseases of adaptation. Limited experience managing stress, inheriting adaptive genes, and facing pre-existing conditions that worsen stress do not directly relate to the concept of physiological and psychological resource depletion leading to diseases of adaptation.

3. In a patient with bipolar disorder, which symptom would indicate a manic episode?

• A. Excessive sleeping
• B. Low self-esteem
• C. Decreased need for sleep
• D. Anhedonia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased need for sleep. A decreased need for sleep is a hallmark symptom of a manic episode in bipolar disorder. During manic episodes, individuals may experience significantly reduced sleep without feeling tired, which can lead to increased energy levels, impulsivity, and other manic symptoms. Excessive sleeping (choice A) is more indicative of depression rather than mania. Low self-esteem (choice B) and anhedonia (choice D) are also more commonly associated with depressive episodes rather than manic episodes in bipolar disorder.

4. When caring for a client with major depressive disorder, what is the most appropriate short-term goal for the client?

• A. The client will report a decrease in depressive symptoms.
• B. The client will establish a sleep routine.
• C. The client will improve social interactions.
• D. The client will set realistic goals for the future.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate short-term goal for a client with major depressive disorder is for them to report a decrease in depressive symptoms. This goal is specific, measurable, and achievable, focusing on the primary symptoms of the disorder. By monitoring and assessing the client's self-reported improvement in depressive symptoms, the healthcare team can track progress and adjust interventions accordingly.

5. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. The nurse understands that buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it:

• A. Has a high potential for abuse.
• B. Works immediately to relieve anxiety.
• C. Does not cause sedation.
• D. Is used for short-term treatment only.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it does not cause sedation. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone has a lower potential for abuse and does not cause the sedative effects commonly seen with benzodiazepines. While benzodiazepines may work immediately to relieve anxiety, buspirone may take longer to show its therapeutic effects. Additionally, buspirone is not limited to short-term treatment only, making it a preferred choice in patients where sedation is a concern or in those with a history of substance abuse.

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