Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. What information should the nurse provide in patient education for a patient prescribed sertraline for major depressive disorder?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. It may take several weeks to feel the full effect.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit while taking this medication.
• D. Regular blood tests are necessary to monitor levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patients prescribed sertraline for major depressive disorder should be educated that it may take several weeks before experiencing the full therapeutic effects of the medication. This delay in onset of action is common with antidepressants like sertraline, and patients need to be aware of this to manage their expectations and continue with the treatment regimen. It's important for the patient to understand that consistent adherence to the prescribed dosage is crucial, even if the full effects are not immediately apparent. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking the medication with food, avoiding grapefruit, and regular blood tests are not specific education points related to the expected timeframe for therapeutic effects of sertraline.

3. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a phobia of flying?

• A. Exposure therapy
• B. Cognitive restructuring
• C. Medication management
• D. Psychoeducation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure therapy is considered the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a phobia of flying. This therapeutic approach involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared stimulus, in this case, flying, in a controlled and supportive environment. By facing the fear in a structured manner, the patient can learn to manage their anxiety response and eventually reduce their phobia-related symptoms. While cognitive restructuring may help change negative thought patterns and medication management can alleviate symptoms, exposure therapy is specifically designed to address phobias through systematic desensitization, making it the most suitable intervention in this scenario. Psychoeducation aims to provide information and support but may not directly target the phobia itself.

4. How does emotional trauma typically affect individuals physically?

• A. Emotional trauma is a distinct category and unrelated to physical symptoms.
• B. Physical manifestations of emotional trauma are usually temporary.
• C. Emotional trauma is often manifested as physical symptoms.
• D. Patients are more aware of physical problems caused by trauma.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Emotional trauma can often manifest as physical symptoms, such as headaches, stomachaches, and other somatic complaints. These physical manifestations can be long-lasting and impact the individual's overall well-being.

5. In a patient with bipolar disorder, which symptom would indicate a manic episode?

• A. Excessive sleeping
• B. Low self-esteem
• C. Decreased need for sleep
• D. Anhedonia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased need for sleep. A decreased need for sleep is a hallmark symptom of a manic episode in bipolar disorder. During manic episodes, individuals may experience significantly reduced sleep without feeling tired, which can lead to increased energy levels, impulsivity, and other manic symptoms. Excessive sleeping (choice A) is more indicative of depression rather than mania. Low self-esteem (choice B) and anhedonia (choice D) are also more commonly associated with depressive episodes rather than manic episodes in bipolar disorder.

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