Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. When a patient with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine, what is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Suicidal ideation
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When initiating fluoxetine therapy in a patient with major depressive disorder, monitoring for suicidal ideation is crucial due to the increased risk of suicidal thoughts or behaviors that can occur, especially in the initial phase of treatment. This close monitoring is essential to ensure patient safety and intervene promptly if such symptoms arise. Weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia are potential side effects of some medications used to treat depression, but suicidal ideation is the most critical and immediate side effect to monitor for when starting fluoxetine.

3. For a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) who spends several hours a day washing her hands, which type of therapy is most appropriate?

• A. Exposure and response prevention
• B. Dialectical behavior therapy
• C. Family therapy
• D. Interpersonal therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is the most appropriate therapy for managing OCD. ERP involves exposing the patient to anxiety-provoking stimuli (such as touching dirty objects) and preventing the compulsive response (hand washing), thus helping the patient learn to tolerate the anxiety without performing the ritualistic behavior. Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) focuses more on emotional regulation and interpersonal skills, making it less suitable for directly addressing OCD symptoms. Family therapy and interpersonal therapy may be beneficial for other conditions or relationship issues but are not specifically designed to target OCD symptoms like ERP.

4. When interviewing a distressed client who was fired after 15 years of loyal employment, which of the following questions would best assist the nurse in determining the client's appraisal of the situation? Select the one that does not apply.

• A. What coping resources have you used previously in stressful situations?
• B. Have you ever faced a similar stressful situation before?
• C. Who do you think is to blame for this situation?
• D. What do you believe led to your termination from your job?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial for the nurse to help the client assess their coping mechanisms and perspective on the situation. Questions A and B focus on exploring the client's coping resources and past experiences to guide them towards effective stress management. Asking who is to blame (choice C) is not conducive to evaluating coping abilities; instead, it might elicit a blame-focused response, which can impede progress. Choice D, inquiring about the reason for being fired, is a nontherapeutic approach that does not promote a constructive appraisal of the situation.

5. Which therapeutic communication statement might a psychiatric-mental health registered nurse use when a patient's nursing diagnosis is altered thought processes?

• A. I know you say you hear voices, but I cannot hear them.
• B. Stop listening to the voices, they are NOT real.
• C. You say you hear voices, what are they telling you?
• D. Please tell the voices to leave you alone for now.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Asking about the content of the voices helps understand the patient's experience and assess risk.

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