Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. A client is experiencing a moderate level of anxiety. Which is an example of an appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to pace in a safe environment.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss feelings.
• C. Help the client identify the cause of anxiety.
• D. Provide a distraction for the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allowing the client to pace in a safe environment is an appropriate nursing intervention for managing moderate anxiety levels. Allowing pacing provides the client with a physical outlet for their anxiety and can help them release nervous energy without increasing distress. It promotes movement and can aid in reducing feelings of restlessness or agitation. Encouraging the client to discuss feelings (Choice B) is more suitable for addressing emotional aspects of anxiety rather than providing an immediate physical outlet. Helping the client identify the cause of anxiety (Choice C) may be more appropriate for long-term management but may not address the immediate need for physical release. Providing a distraction (Choice D) may not directly address the physical needs associated with moderate anxiety levels.

3. When assessing a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits flat affect and social withdrawal, these symptoms are classified as:

• A. Positive symptoms
• B. Negative symptoms
• C. Cognitive symptoms
• D. Mood symptoms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Flat affect and social withdrawal are characteristic of negative symptoms in schizophrenia. Negative symptoms involve disruptions to normal emotions and behaviors, such as reduced emotional expression (flat affect) and social withdrawal. These symptoms reflect a decrease or absence of normal functions. Positive symptoms, on the other hand, involve the presence of abnormal behaviors or experiences, such as hallucinations and delusions, which are added to a person’s experiences. Cognitive symptoms relate to difficulties with thinking, memory, and processing information, impacting cognition. Mood symptoms involve disturbances in mood regulation, which is distinct from the flat affect seen in negative symptoms.

4. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Agree with the client's delusions to avoid confrontation.
• B. Challenge the client's delusions directly.
• C. Encourage the client to discuss their delusions in detail.
• D. Present reality and offer reassurance without reinforcing the delusions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a client with schizophrenia experiencing delusions, the nurse should present reality and offer reassurance without reinforcing the client's delusions. This approach helps the client maintain a connection to reality while feeling supported. Agreeing with the delusions may perpetuate false beliefs, while directly challenging them can lead to increased distress for the client. Encouraging the client to discuss their delusions in detail may further exacerbate their symptoms or reinforce their false beliefs. Therefore, the most therapeutic intervention is to gently present reality and provide reassurance to the client.

5. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

• A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
• B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• C. Amitriptyline
• D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

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