Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. Which of the following are common symptoms of schizophrenia? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Delusions
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Organized speech
• D. Catatonia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common symptoms of schizophrenia include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and catatonia. Organized speech is not a typical symptom of schizophrenia. In schizophrenia, individuals often exhibit disorganized or incoherent speech patterns, rather than organized speech. Euphoria is not typically associated with schizophrenia, making it an incorrect choice.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with schizophrenia. Which symptom would be considered a positive symptom of this disorder?

• A. Alogia
• B. Anhedonia
• C. Delusions
• D. Flat affect

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Delusions are considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia. Positive symptoms represent an excess or distortion of normal functions, such as hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech or behavior. In contrast, negative symptoms involve a decrease or absence of normal functions, like alogia (poverty of speech), anhedonia (inability to experience pleasure), and flat affect (reduced expression of emotions). Therefore, in the context of schizophrenia, delusions fall under the category of positive symptoms.

5. During an acute panic attack, which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings
• B. Provide a calm environment
• C. Teach the client deep breathing exercises
• D. Leave the client alone to calm down

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an acute panic attack, the priority intervention is to create a calm and safe environment. Teaching the client deep breathing exercises is crucial as it promotes relaxation and reduces hyperventilation, helping to manage the panic attack effectively. Encouraging the client to discuss their feelings may exacerbate the panic by increasing emotional distress. Providing a busy environment can escalate stress levels rather than alleviate them. Leaving the client alone may lead to feelings of abandonment or worsen the panic attack. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to teach deep breathing exercises to help the client regain control and manage the panic attack.

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