a patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to
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1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. When assessing a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), which symptom would the nurse most likely observe?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive worry is a characteristic feature of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Patients with GAD experience persistent and excessive worry about various aspects of their life, such as work, health, or family, even when there is little or no reason for concern. This chronic worrying can significantly impact their daily functioning and quality of life. Flashbacks are more commonly associated with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hallucinations are more typical in conditions like schizophrenia, while compulsive behaviors are seen in obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Therefore, in the context of GAD, excessive worry is the symptom that the nurse is most likely to observe.

3. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), especially exposure and response prevention, is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT helps individuals identify and modify their distorted beliefs and behaviors related to OCD, while exposure and response prevention specifically target the core symptoms of OCD by gradually exposing the individual to feared stimuli and preventing compulsive responses. While medication management can be used as an adjunct to therapy, CBT has shown to have long-lasting benefits in reducing OCD symptoms and improving the overall quality of life. Psychoanalysis focuses more on exploring unconscious conflicts and childhood experiences, which may not be as effective for OCD. Group therapy can be beneficial as a supplemental treatment but is not typically as effective as individual CBT tailored to the specific needs of the individual with OCD.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder. The client states, 'I am the president of the United States.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should avoid challenging the client's delusions directly. Asking for more information can help the nurse understand the client's experience and build rapport.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with bipolar disorder who is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, clients typically exhibit low energy levels, feelings of hopelessness, insomnia or hypersomnia, and decreased appetite. High energy levels are more commonly seen in manic episodes of bipolar disorder.

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