Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is experiencing flashbacks. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the flashbacks.
• B. Stay with the client and offer reassurance.
• C. Instruct the client to avoid discussing the traumatic event.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a flashback, it is essential for the nurse to stay with the client and offer reassurance. This approach can help the client feel safe and supported during a distressing experience. Encouraging the client to ignore the flashbacks may lead to increased anxiety and distress. Instructing the client to avoid discussing the traumatic event can hinder the therapeutic process of addressing and processing the trauma. While group therapy can be beneficial, it may not be the immediate intervention needed during a flashback.

3. A client who experiences stress on a regular basis asks a nurse what causes these feelings. Which is the most appropriate nursing response?

• A. Genetics have no influence on your temperament.
• B. How you reacted to past experiences influences how you feel now.
• C. Maintaining good physical health always keeps stress levels low.
• D. Stress can be avoided by using appropriate coping mechanisms.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'How you reacted to past experiences influences how you feel now.' This response is appropriate because past experiences can shape an individual's current response to stress. It acknowledges the impact of learned patterns and coping mechanisms on one's current adaptation to stressors. Choice A is incorrect because genetics can play a role in temperament to some extent. Choice C is incorrect because while physical health can contribute to stress management, it is not the sole determinant of stress levels. Choice D is incorrect as stress is not always avoidable, but coping mechanisms can help manage and reduce its impact.

4. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?

• A. Monitoring for signs of infection
• B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
• C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
• D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.

5. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone. The nurse understands that buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it:

• A. Has a high potential for abuse.
• B. Works immediately to relieve anxiety.
• C. Does not cause sedation.
• D. Is used for short-term treatment only.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Buspirone is different from benzodiazepines because it does not cause sedation. Unlike benzodiazepines, buspirone has a lower potential for abuse and does not cause the sedative effects commonly seen with benzodiazepines. While benzodiazepines may work immediately to relieve anxiety, buspirone may take longer to show its therapeutic effects. Additionally, buspirone is not limited to short-term treatment only, making it a preferred choice in patients where sedation is a concern or in those with a history of substance abuse.

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