Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. A client is diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), and a nurse is planning care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse exclude from the care plan?

• A. Allowing the client to perform rituals initially
• B. Discouraging the client from washing their hands
• C. Monitoring for suicidal ideation
• D. Providing a structured schedule of activities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring for suicidal ideation. When caring for a client with OCD, interventions should include allowing the client to perform rituals initially, setting limits on the time allowed for rituals, encouraging the client to verbalize feelings, and providing a structured schedule of activities. Monitoring for suicidal ideation is crucial in assessing the client's safety and mental health status, but it is not a direct intervention specific to managing OCD symptoms.

3. Which client should the nurse anticipate to be most receptive to psychiatric treatment?

• A. A Jewish female journalist
• B. A Baptist homeless male
• C. A Catholic black male
• D. A Protestant Swedish business executive

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client who is Jewish and female, a journalist, is likely to be more receptive to psychiatric treatment due to cultural factors. In Jewish culture, there is often a high value placed on preventative healthcare, including mental health. Additionally, research suggests that women are more likely than men to seek treatment for mental health issues, making this client more open to psychiatric care. Choice B, a homeless male, might face barriers to accessing and accepting psychiatric treatment due to challenges related to homelessness. Choice C, a Catholic black male, and choice D, a Protestant Swedish business executive, do not provide specific cultural or gender-related factors that would indicate higher receptiveness to psychiatric treatment than the Jewish female journalist.

4. Which intervention should the nurse implement when caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Monitor the patient's vital signs frequently.
• B. Keep the patient distracted with group-oriented activities.
• C. Provide the patient with frequent milkshakes and protein drinks.
• D. Reduce the volume on the television and dim bright lights in the environment.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a patient demonstrating manic behavior, it is crucial to monitor vital signs frequently to ensure the patient's physical health is stable. Providing nutrition, such as milkshakes and protein drinks, is essential to meet the patient's dietary needs. Diminishing environmental stimuli by reducing the volume on the television and dimming bright lights can help create a calmer environment. However, keeping the patient distracted with group-oriented activities may not be the most appropriate intervention as it could potentially exacerbate the manic behavior by overstimulating the patient. Therefore, this choice is the one that doesn't apply in managing manic behavior effectively.

5. A patient with social anxiety disorder is prescribed propranolol. The nurse understands that this medication is used primarily to:

• A. Reduce anxiety symptoms
• B. Improve mood
• C. Increase energy levels
• D. Enhance social interactions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Reduce anxiety symptoms. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, is primarily used to reduce physical symptoms of anxiety, such as rapid heartbeat and trembling, in patients with social anxiety disorder. It does not directly affect mood, energy levels, or social interactions. Choice B is incorrect because propranolol does not target mood improvement. Choice C is incorrect because propranolol does not aim to increase energy levels. Choice D is incorrect because propranolol does not enhance social interactions; its primary role is in reducing physical symptoms of anxiety.

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