Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental disorder?

• A. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria
• B. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning
• C. When the client communicates significant distress
• D. When the client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental disorder when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental disorder, there must be significant disturbance in cognition, emotion, regulation, or behavior that reflects a dysfunction in the psychological, biological or developmental processes underlying mental functioning. These disorders are usually associated with significant distress or disability in social, occupational, or other important activities. The client's ability to communicate distress would be considered a positive attribute.

3. A client has generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), and a nurse is providing care. Which of the following interventions should the nurse avoid implementing?

• A. Encourage the client to express their feelings
• B. Monitor daily caloric intake and weight
• C. Promote regular physical activity
• D. Discourage the use of caffeine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In caring for a client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), it is important to encourage the client to express their feelings, promote regular physical activity, and discourage the use of caffeine. Addressing weight and caloric intake monitoring may exacerbate anxiety related to body image, and focusing on these aspects can be distressing for the client. Therefore, monitoring daily caloric intake and weight should be avoided in this scenario.

4. A client is experiencing a moderate level of anxiety. Which is an example of an appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to pace in a safe environment.
• B. Encourage the client to discuss feelings.
• C. Help the client identify the cause of anxiety.
• D. Provide a distraction for the client.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Allowing the client to pace in a safe environment is an appropriate nursing intervention for managing moderate anxiety levels. Allowing pacing provides the client with a physical outlet for their anxiety and can help them release nervous energy without increasing distress. It promotes movement and can aid in reducing feelings of restlessness or agitation. Encouraging the client to discuss feelings (Choice B) is more suitable for addressing emotional aspects of anxiety rather than providing an immediate physical outlet. Helping the client identify the cause of anxiety (Choice C) may be more appropriate for long-term management but may not address the immediate need for physical release. Providing a distraction (Choice D) may not directly address the physical needs associated with moderate anxiety levels.

5. A client has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
• B. Avoid driving until you know how the medication affects you.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam (Ativan) can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so the client should avoid driving until they know how the medication affects them. This instruction is crucial for ensuring the client's safety and preventing any potential accidents or harm. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it contradicts the usual recommendation of taking lorazepam with or without food. Choice D is incorrect and dangerous advice as doubling the dose of lorazepam can lead to overdose and serious complications.

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