Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

2. A client has been prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac) for the treatment of depression. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge instructions?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime to avoid daytime drowsiness.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Stop taking the medication if you feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid drinking alcohol while taking fluoxetine (Prozac) because alcohol can increase the risk of side effects such as drowsiness and dizziness. It is important to follow this instruction to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication in the treatment of depression. Choice A is incorrect because fluoxetine (Prozac) is usually taken in the morning to prevent insomnia. Choice C is not a crucial instruction for this medication. Choice D is incorrect as abruptly stopping fluoxetine can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

3. Which statement about the concept of neuroses is most accurate?

• A. An individual experiencing neurosis is unaware of the distress they are experiencing.
• B. An individual experiencing neurosis feels helpless to change their situation.
• C. An individual experiencing neurosis is aware of psychological causes of their behavior.
• D. An individual experiencing neurosis has a loss of contact with reality.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neurosis involves feelings of distress and anxiety, but individuals experiencing neurosis are usually aware of their distress and its causes. They may recognize that their behaviors are maladaptive and are generally in contact with reality. The accurate statement about neurosis is that an individual feels helpless to change their situation. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with neurosis are usually aware of their distress. Choice C is incorrect because while individuals may be aware of psychological causes, it is not the defining characteristic of neurosis. Choice D is incorrect because a loss of contact with reality is more characteristic of psychosis, not neurosis.

4. Which therapeutic intervention is most effective for social anxiety disorder?

• A. Group therapy
• B. Behavioral rehearsal
• C. Cognitive-behavioral therapy
• D. Medication management

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic intervention for social anxiety disorder. CBT helps individuals identify and change negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with anxiety, leading to long-term symptom relief and improved coping strategies. Group therapy (choice A) can be beneficial as a complementary approach but may not be as effective as CBT for directly targeting individual cognitive and behavioral patterns. Behavioral rehearsal (choice B) is a technique used within CBT and not a standalone intervention for social anxiety disorder. Medication management (choice D) can be used as an adjunct to therapy in some cases but is not the first-line treatment for social anxiety disorder.

5. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?

• A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
• B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
• C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
• D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.

Similar Questions