Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital. Which assessment finding would indicate early alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client experiencing early alcohol withdrawal, one of the key assessment findings is diaphoresis (excessive sweating). This is due to autonomic hyperactivity commonly seen during this phase, along with other signs like tremors and tachycardia. Bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension (low blood pressure), and hypothermia (low body temperature) are not typically associated with early alcohol withdrawal, making them incorrect choices.

2. Based on what criteria do most cultures label behavior as mental illness?

• A. Incomprehensibility and cultural relativity
• B. Strength of character and ethics
• C. Goal directedness and high energy
• D. Creativity and good coping skills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Incomprehensibility and cultural relativity. Incomprehensibility and cultural relativity are the main criteria used across cultures to define behavior as mental illness. When behavior is incomprehensible and significantly deviates from cultural norms, it is more likely to be classified as a mental illness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Strength of character, ethics, goal directedness, high energy, creativity, and good coping skills are typically associated with positive mental health rather than mental illness.

3. A client with generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (Buspar). Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

• A. I should take this medication as needed for anxiety.
• B. I need to avoid eating aged cheeses.
• C. It may take several weeks for this medication to take effect.
• D. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Buspirone (Buspar) may take several weeks to take effect, so clients should continue taking it as prescribed.

4. Which symptom should a healthcare provider identify as typical of the fight-or-flight response?

• A. Pupil dilation
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased salivation
• D. Decreased peristalsis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate. During the fight-or-flight response, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, causing the release of epinephrine. This hormone triggers an increase in heart rate to supply more blood to the muscles for a rapid response. Pupil dilation occurs to enhance vision in preparation for quick reactions. On the other hand, salivation and peristalsis decrease as the body prioritizes functions necessary for immediate action rather than digestion-related activities. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the typical physiological changes associated with the fight-or-flight response.

5. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse not monitor for? Select all that apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should not monitor for tardive dyskinesia as it is a potential long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications. However, the nurse should monitor for neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia as these are common side effects associated with antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities and may develop after prolonged use of antipsychotic drugs.

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