Nursing Elites

1. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following instructions should the nurse exclude from the teaching?

• A. It may take several weeks for the medication to take effect
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication
• C. Discourage the client from washing her hands
• D. You may experience an increase in energy before your mood improves

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should not include the instruction to discourage the client from washing her hands in the teaching for a client prescribed an antidepressant. This instruction is not relevant to the medication regimen. Instead, the nurse should educate the client that it may take several weeks for the medication to take effect, to avoid alcohol, not to discontinue the medication abruptly, and that there may be an increase in energy before mood improves. Regular blood tests are not typically required for most antidepressants.

2. Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?

• A. Lithium
• B. Alprazolam
• C. Diphenhydramine
• D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.

3. When educating a client prescribed diazepam for anxiety, which statement indicates an accurate understanding of the medication?

• A. I should take this medication only when I feel anxious.
• B. I should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I should avoid driving until I know how this medication affects me.
• D. I can stop taking this medication abruptly if I feel better.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients prescribed diazepam for anxiety should avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Alcohol can potentiate the side effects of diazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, increasing the risk of harm. Choice A is incorrect because diazepam is typically taken regularly as prescribed, not just when feeling anxious. Choice C is also important but not directly related to the medication itself. Choice D is dangerous advice; stopping diazepam abruptly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and should only be done under medical supervision.

4. A healthcare provider is providing care for a patient with major depressive disorder who is prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the healthcare provider educate the patient about?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs can cause anticholinergic side effects, such as dry mouth, due to their mechanism of action. Educating the patient about dry mouth can help them stay informed and manage this common side effect effectively during treatment. Hypertension (Choice A) is not a common side effect of TCAs. Diarrhea (Choice B) is more commonly associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) than with TCAs. Weight loss (Choice D) is not a common side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause weight gain.

5. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

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