Nursing Elites

1. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse avoid implementing?

• A. Encourage participation in activities
• B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
• C. Monitor for suicidal ideation
• D. Discourage verbalization of feelings

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In caring for a client with bipolar disorder in a depressive episode, the nurse should implement interventions that promote mental well-being. Encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, and monitoring for suicidal ideation are all essential components of care. Discouraging verbalization of feelings is counterproductive as it hinders the therapeutic process and communication, which are crucial for the client's emotional expression and recovery.

2. Which intervention focuses on managing a common characteristic of major depressive disorder associated with the older population?

• A. Conducting routine suicide screenings at a senior center.
• B. Identifying depression as a natural, but treatable outcome of aging.
• C. Identifying males as at a greater risk for developing depression.
• D. Stressing that most individuals experience only a single episode of major depression in a lifetime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conducting routine suicide screenings at senior centers is crucial in managing major depressive disorder in the older population. Screening helps identify individuals at risk, allows for timely intervention, and contributes to the overall well-being of older adults.

3. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the delusions.
• B. Provide reality-based feedback to the client.
• C. Distract the client from the delusions.
• D. Encourage the client to discuss the delusions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions, providing reality-based feedback is considered an effective intervention to address this symptom. This approach helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not real, assisting them in managing their delusions and promoting their overall well-being. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the delusions does not help the client in distinguishing reality from delusions. Choice C is incorrect as distraction may only provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to discuss the delusions may reinforce or intensify them rather than help in managing them effectively.

4. A client who experiences stress on a regular basis asks a nurse what causes these feelings. Which is the most appropriate nursing response?

• A. Genetics have no influence on your temperament.
• B. How you reacted to past experiences influences how you feel now.
• C. Maintaining good physical health always keeps stress levels low.
• D. Stress can be avoided by using appropriate coping mechanisms.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'How you reacted to past experiences influences how you feel now.' This response is appropriate because past experiences can shape an individual's current response to stress. It acknowledges the impact of learned patterns and coping mechanisms on one's current adaptation to stressors. Choice A is incorrect because genetics can play a role in temperament to some extent. Choice C is incorrect because while physical health can contribute to stress management, it is not the sole determinant of stress levels. Choice D is incorrect as stress is not always avoidable, but coping mechanisms can help manage and reduce its impact.

5. During a treatment team meeting, the point is made that a client with schizophrenia has recovered from the acute psychosis but continues to demonstrate apathy, avolition, and blunted affect. The nurse who relates these symptoms to serotonin excess will suggest that the client receive?

• A. Chlorpromazine
• B. Phenelzine
• C. Haloperidol
• D. Olanzapine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of apathy, avolition, and blunted affect are indicative of negative symptoms commonly seen in schizophrenia. These symptoms are often associated with dopamine and serotonin imbalances in the brain. Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is known for its efficacy in treating both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia. It acts by blocking serotonin and dopamine receptors, helping to alleviate the symptoms mentioned. Chlorpromazine and Haloperidol are typical antipsychotics that primarily target dopamine receptors, while Phenelzine is an MAOI used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, not schizophrenia. Therefore, the most appropriate choice for this client displaying these symptoms related to serotonin excess would be Olanzapine.

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