ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Which statement about the concept of psychoses is most accurate?
- A. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware that their behaviors are maladaptive.
- B. Individuals experiencing psychoses experience little distress.
- C. Individuals experiencing psychoses are aware of experiencing psychological problems.
- D. Individuals experiencing psychoses are based in reality.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most accurate statement about psychoses is that individuals experiencing it often exhibit limited distress because they are not fully aware of their altered perception of reality. They may not recognize that their behaviors are maladaptive or acknowledge the presence of psychological issues. Choice A is incorrect because individuals with psychoses may not be aware that their behaviors are maladaptive. Choice C is incorrect because individuals with psychoses may not have insight into their psychological problems. Choice D is incorrect because individuals with psychoses often struggle to differentiate between reality and their altered perceptions.
2. Which patient should be most carefully assessed for fluid and electrolyte imbalance among those receiving the following drugs?
- A. lithium (Eskalith)
- B. clozapine (Clozaril)
- C. diazepam (Valium)
- D. amitriptyline
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lithium is known to cause polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst), which can lead to fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Therefore, patients receiving lithium should be carefully monitored for signs of fluid and electrolyte disturbances to prevent any potential complications.
3. After a client with major depressive disorder undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), which of the following is a priority assessment for the nurse?
- A. Monitoring for signs of infection
- B. Monitoring for signs of respiratory distress
- C. Monitoring for signs of hypotension
- D. Monitoring for signs of bleeding
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority assessment for the nurse after a client undergoes electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is monitoring for signs of respiratory distress. This is crucial due to the potential risk of complications from anesthesia, such as airway compromise or respiratory depression. Prompt identification and intervention in case of respiratory distress are essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not the priority immediately post-ECT. Hypotension (Choice C) and bleeding (Choice D) are also potential concerns but assessing respiratory distress takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses to the client's well-being.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is experiencing severe anxiety. Which of the following symptoms should the healthcare professional expect to observe?
- A. Restlessness
- B. Rapid heart rate
- C. Sweating
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Rapid heart rate is a characteristic symptom of severe anxiety due to the body's fight-or-flight response being activated. This physiological response leads to an increased heart rate to prepare the body to deal with perceived threats. Healthcare professionals should be vigilant in monitoring and managing this symptom in clients experiencing severe anxiety.
5. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?
- A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
- B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
- C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
- D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.
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