Nursing Elites

1. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a phobia of flying?

• A. Exposure therapy
• B. Cognitive restructuring
• C. Medication management
• D. Psychoeducation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exposure therapy is considered the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a phobia of flying. This therapeutic approach involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared stimulus, in this case, flying, in a controlled and supportive environment. By facing the fear in a structured manner, the patient can learn to manage their anxiety response and eventually reduce their phobia-related symptoms. While cognitive restructuring may help change negative thought patterns and medication management can alleviate symptoms, exposure therapy is specifically designed to address phobias through systematic desensitization, making it the most suitable intervention in this scenario. Psychoeducation aims to provide information and support but may not directly target the phobia itself.

2. A client is diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect?

• A. Excessive worry about physical symptoms
• B. Fear of gaining weight
• C. Frequent visits to healthcare providers
• D. Persistent depressive mood

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with somatic symptom disorder often exhibit frequent visits to healthcare providers due to their excessive worry about physical symptoms. They seek reassurance and explanations for their perceived medical issues, even when there is no organic basis for their complaints. This behavior is a characteristic feature of somatic symptom disorder and distinguishes it from other conditions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Excessive worry about physical symptoms may occur but it is not the primary behavior associated with this disorder. Fear of gaining weight is more characteristic of eating disorders, and persistent depressive mood is more indicative of mood disorders rather than somatic symptom disorder.

3. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Exposure and response prevention
• C. Interpersonal therapy
• D. Supportive therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.

4. A bright student confides in the school nurse about conflicts related to attending college or working to add needed financial support to the family. Which coping strategy is most appropriate for the nurse to recommend to the student at this time?

• A. Meditation
• B. Problem-solving training
• C. Relaxation
• D. Journaling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the student is dealing with conflicting priorities of attending college or working to support the family financially. Problem-solving training is the most appropriate coping strategy to recommend. It can help the student objectively assess the situation, identify potential solutions, and make informed decisions. Problem-solving training provides structure and guidance, empowering the student to navigate the conflicting priorities effectively and choose the best course of action. Meditation, relaxation, and journaling may be beneficial for stress relief but may not directly address the decision-making process required in this situation.

5. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Hold his medication and contact his prescriber.
• B. Wipe him with a washcloth wet with cold water or alcohol.
• C. Administer a medication such as benztropine IM to correct this dystonic reaction.
• D. Reassure him that although there is no treatment for his tardive dyskinesia, it will pass.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

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