ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a phobia of flying?
- A. Exposure therapy
- B. Cognitive restructuring
- C. Medication management
- D. Psychoeducation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Exposure therapy is considered the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a phobia of flying. This therapeutic approach involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared stimulus, in this case, flying, in a controlled and supportive environment. By facing the fear in a structured manner, the patient can learn to manage their anxiety response and eventually reduce their phobia-related symptoms. While cognitive restructuring may help change negative thought patterns and medication management can alleviate symptoms, exposure therapy is specifically designed to address phobias through systematic desensitization, making it the most suitable intervention in this scenario. Psychoeducation aims to provide information and support but may not directly target the phobia itself.
2. During an acute panic attack, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage the client to discuss their feelings
- B. Provide a calm environment
- C. Teach the client deep breathing exercises
- D. Leave the client alone to calm down
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an acute panic attack, the priority intervention is to create a calm and safe environment. Teaching the client deep breathing exercises is crucial as it promotes relaxation and reduces hyperventilation, helping to manage the panic attack effectively. Encouraging the client to discuss their feelings may exacerbate the panic by increasing emotional distress. Providing a busy environment can escalate stress levels rather than alleviate them. Leaving the client alone may lead to feelings of abandonment or worsen the panic attack. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to teach deep breathing exercises to help the client regain control and manage the panic attack.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Amenorrhea
- B. Lanugo
- C. Hypotension
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Findings in a client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa include amenorrhea, lanugo, hypotension, and bradycardia. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. In anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances often lead to hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, due to malnutrition and potential purging behaviors. Hyperkalemia, high potassium levels, is not a common finding in individuals with anorexia nervosa.
4. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms shouldn't the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal?
- A. Tremors
- B. Hallucinations
- C. Diaphoresis
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, the nurse should expect to observe symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis. Seizures may also occur during severe withdrawal. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia (an increased heart rate) is more commonly observed due to the stimulant effects of alcohol withdrawal on the sympathetic nervous system.
5. During an assessment, a nurse observes a client showing signs of moderate anxiety. Which symptom is not typically associated with moderate anxiety?
- A. Fidgeting
- B. Laughing inappropriately
- C. Palpitations
- D. Nail biting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assessing a client with moderate anxiety, the nurse should anticipate signs such as fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting. These behaviors are common manifestations of increased stress levels. Palpitations, on the other hand, are more commonly associated with severe anxiety or panic attacks. Other symptoms of severe anxiety may include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances.
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