ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. Which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with a phobia of flying?
- A. Exposure therapy
- B. Cognitive restructuring
- C. Medication management
- D. Psychoeducation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Exposure therapy is considered the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a phobia of flying. This therapeutic approach involves gradually exposing the individual to the feared stimulus, in this case, flying, in a controlled and supportive environment. By facing the fear in a structured manner, the patient can learn to manage their anxiety response and eventually reduce their phobia-related symptoms. While cognitive restructuring may help change negative thought patterns and medication management can alleviate symptoms, exposure therapy is specifically designed to address phobias through systematic desensitization, making it the most suitable intervention in this scenario. Psychoeducation aims to provide information and support but may not directly target the phobia itself.
2. Which of the following characteristics is not a feature of borderline personality disorder?
- A. Intense fear of abandonment
- B. Unstable relationships
- C. Impulsivity
- D. Grandiosity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Borderline personality disorder is characterized by an intense fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, and chronic feelings of emptiness. Grandiosity, which involves an inflated sense of self-importance, is typically associated with narcissistic personality disorder rather than borderline personality disorder.
3. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.
4. Before discharge from the chemical dependency unit, clients are introduced to different community resources. Which of the following resources would be best for a teenage client, who has been abusing over-the-counter sedatives and is ready for discharge in two days?
- A. Detoxification center
- B. Home care
- C. Assertive community team
- D. Twelve-step recovery group
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a teenage client who has been abusing over-the-counter sedatives and is ready for discharge in two days, the best resource would be a detoxification center. This specialized facility can provide the necessary medical and psychological support to safely manage the withdrawal symptoms associated with substance abuse. It is crucial to ensure a safe and supervised detox process for the client's well-being and successful recovery.
5. A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is being assessed by a healthcare professional. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect the client to exhibit?
- A. Delusions of grandeur
- B. Hypervigilance
- C. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors
- D. Periods of excessive sleeping
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hypervigilance is a common symptom. Hypervigilance refers to a state of increased alertness, awareness, and sensitivity to potential threats or danger. This heightened state of vigilance can manifest as being easily startled, having difficulty relaxing or sleeping, and constantly scanning the environment for signs of danger. It is an adaptive response to the trauma experienced and can significantly impact the individual's daily functioning. The other options are not typically associated with PTSD. Delusions of grandeur are more commonly seen in certain psychiatric disorders like bipolar disorder or schizophrenia. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not PTSD. Periods of excessive sleeping may be seen in conditions like depression, but they are not a hallmark symptom of PTSD.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access