Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is being assessed by a healthcare professional. Which symptom would the healthcare professional expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Delusions of grandeur
• B. Hypervigilance
• C. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors
• D. Periods of excessive sleeping

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In individuals with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), hypervigilance is a common symptom. Hypervigilance refers to a state of increased alertness, awareness, and sensitivity to potential threats or danger. This heightened state of vigilance can manifest as being easily startled, having difficulty relaxing or sleeping, and constantly scanning the environment for signs of danger. It is an adaptive response to the trauma experienced and can significantly impact the individual's daily functioning. The other options are not typically associated with PTSD. Delusions of grandeur are more commonly seen in certain psychiatric disorders like bipolar disorder or schizophrenia. Obsessive-compulsive behaviors are characteristic of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not PTSD. Periods of excessive sleeping may be seen in conditions like depression, but they are not a hallmark symptom of PTSD.

2. A client diagnosed with OCD spends hours bathing and grooming. During a one-on-one interaction, the client discusses the rituals in detail but avoids any feelings that the rituals generate. Which defense mechanism should the nurse identify?

• A. Dissociation
• B. Rationalization
• C. Sublimation
• D. Intellectualization

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Intellectualization is a defense mechanism where an individual focuses on rational, logical explanations to distance themselves from uncomfortable emotions. In this scenario, the client discusses the OCD rituals in a detailed and analytical manner, avoiding the emotional aspects associated with them. This behavior reflects intellectualization rather than dissociation, rationalization, or sublimation. Dissociation involves a disconnection from reality, rationalization is the attempt to justify behaviors, and sublimation is redirecting unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.

3. Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?

• A. It includes specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders.
• B. It is used by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis.
• C. It provides a classification system for mental disorders.
• D. It includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

5. A patient with major depressive disorder is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Sexual dysfunction
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly associated with sexual dysfunction as a side effect. This adverse effect includes decreased libido, delayed orgasm, and erectile dysfunction. Educating patients about this potential side effect is crucial to manage expectations and consider appropriate interventions. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as SSRIs are not typically associated with hypertension, diarrhea, or weight gain as common side effects.

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