which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient experiencing a panic attack

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Practice A

1. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack?

A. Encourage deep, slow breathing.
B. Encourage the patient to talk about their feelings.
C. Leave the patient alone to calm down.
D. Engage the patient in a physical activity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging deep, slow breathing is the most appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a panic attack. This technique can help the patient regulate their breathing, reduce hyperventilation, and promote relaxation, which are essential in managing the symptoms of a panic attack. Choice B, encouraging the patient to talk about their feelings, may not be effective during an acute panic attack as the focus should be on calming the patient down. Choice C, leaving the patient alone, can lead to increased feelings of fear and isolation during a panic attack. Choice D, engaging the patient in physical activity, may exacerbate symptoms as it can increase the feeling of being out of control.

2. In a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?

A. The client reports a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
B. The client reports a decrease in the intensity of obsessive thoughts.
C. The client reports an improvement in overall mood.
D. The client reports an improvement in sleep patterns.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In clients with OCD undergoing cognitive-behavioral therapy, a decrease in the frequency of compulsive behaviors is a key indicator of treatment effectiveness. This reduction signifies progress in managing and controlling the compulsions associated with OCD, which is a primary goal of the therapy. Choices B, C, and D may also be positive outcomes of therapy, but the most critical aspect in treating OCD with cognitive-behavioral therapy is targeting and reducing the frequency of compulsive behaviors.

3. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

A. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
B. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
C. Amitriptyline
D. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

4. Which of the following is not a common side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

A. Nausea
B. Insomnia
C. Weight loss
D. Sexual dysfunction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common side effects of SSRIs include nausea, insomnia, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction. Weight loss is not a common side effect associated with SSRIs; instead, weight gain is more frequently observed. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

5. Which mood stabilizer is commonly prescribed for bipolar disorder?

A. Sertraline
B. Lithium
C. Clozapine
D. Haloperidol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lithium is a well-established mood stabilizer commonly prescribed for the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to control manic episodes, stabilize mood swings, and reduce the risk of relapse in individuals with this condition. Sertraline is an antidepressant commonly used for treating depression, while Clozapine and Haloperidol are antipsychotic medications used for different psychiatric conditions. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it is specifically indicated and effective for bipolar disorder.