following a knee injury a football player is taking ibuprofen a nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drug for the control of pain which drug action is most
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pathophysiology

1. Following a knee injury, a football player is taking ibuprofen, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug, for the control of pain. Which drug action is most likely to result in diminished sensation of pain for the player?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes. Ibuprofen works by inhibiting these enzymes, which are involved in the production of prostaglandins that mediate pain and inflammation. This inhibition leads to decreased prostaglandin production, resulting in a decrease in pain and inflammation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because ibuprofen does not act on opioid receptors, NMDA receptors, or serotonin receptors to control pain. It primarily exerts its analgesic and anti-inflammatory effects through COX enzyme inhibition.

2. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia, which is an increased heart rate, is a classic clinical manifestation of hyperthyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, there is an excess production of thyroid hormones, leading to an increased metabolic rate. This increased metabolism can cause symptoms such as a rapid heart rate. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, weight gain, and fatigue are more commonly associated with hypothyroidism, where there is a deficiency of thyroid hormones leading to a slower metabolic rate.

3. A patient is administered a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor. What is the main rationale for administering these medications together?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The main rationale for administering a nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor in combination with a nonnucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor is that they exhibit synergistic antiviral effects when used together. This combination enhances their antiviral activity against HIV by targeting different steps in the viral replication cycle. Choice A is incorrect because the rationale for combining these medications is based on their antiviral effects, not treatment adherence. Choice B is incorrect because the primary purpose of combination therapy is not to reduce the duration of illness but to improve treatment efficacy. Choice D is incorrect as the main focus of this combination is not on preventing opportunistic infections but on directly targeting the HIV virus.

4. A patient with a history of hypertension presents with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances. His blood pressure is 220/120 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A patient with a history of hypertension presenting with a severe headache, confusion, and visual disturbances, along with a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg, likely has a hypertensive emergency. In this situation, the severely elevated blood pressure can lead to end-organ damage, causing symptoms such as headache and confusion. Migraine and tension headaches are not associated with such high blood pressure levels. Cluster headaches typically do not present with visual disturbances and confusion in the setting of severe hypertension.

5. Which of the following hormones do the kidneys secrete to increase red blood cell production?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythropoietin. The kidneys produce erythropoietin to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Insulin and glycogen are not hormones secreted by the kidneys; insulin is produced by the pancreas, and glycogen is a stored form of glucose. Testosterone is a hormone primarily produced by the testes in males and to a lesser extent in females. Thyroid stimulating hormone is produced by the pituitary gland to regulate thyroid function, not red blood cell production.

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