ATI RN
ATI Pathophysiology Test Bank
1. A 30-year-old female has suffered a third-degree burn to her hand after spilling hot oil in a kitchen accident. Which teaching point by a member of her care team is most appropriate?
- A. Your hand will likely heal without the need for a skin graft.
- B. You might experience a loss of sensation in your hand after it heals.
- C. Be sure to keep your hand elevated to reduce swelling.
- D. We will need to monitor you for infection as your hand heals.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In third-degree burns, infection is a major concern due to the extensive damage to the skin. Monitoring for infection is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because third-degree burns often require skin grafts due to the severity of the injury. Choice B is incorrect as loss of sensation is more common in nerve damage and not necessarily in burns. Choice C is incorrect because while elevation can help with swelling in minor burns, it is not the most critical concern in third-degree burns.
2. A woman is being treated with clomiphene citrate for the treatment of infertility. She states to the nurse that she has seen an increase in vaginal discharge. The nurse knows that this effect is related to:
- A. Increased blood flow to the vaginal area.
- B. Increased cervical mucus production.
- C. Increased production of vaginal secretions.
- D. Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Increased production of vaginal secretions.' Clomiphene citrate affects cervical mucus production, leading to an increase in vaginal secretions. This effect is beneficial for fertility as it helps create a more hospitable environment for sperm transport. Choice A, 'Increased blood flow to the vaginal area,' is incorrect as the increase in vaginal discharge is primarily due to changes in cervical mucus. Choice B, 'Increased cervical mucus production,' is partially correct but does not fully explain the increase in vaginal secretions. Choice D, 'Increased lubrication in the vaginal canal,' is not directly related to the effect seen with clomiphene citrate treatment for infertility.
3. A 25-year-old just had a colonoscopy and was diagnosed with Crohn disease. Which of the following is consistent with this diagnosis?
- A. Right lower quadrant cramping
- B. Severe bloody diarrhea
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Mostly affects the rectum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Crohn's disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. Right lower quadrant cramping is consistent with Crohn's disease as it commonly involves the terminal ileum, which is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen. Severe bloody diarrhea is more characteristic of ulcerative colitis, another type of inflammatory bowel disease. Nausea and vomiting are not specific symptoms of Crohn's disease. Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract, not just the rectum, so it is not accurate to say it mostly affects the rectum.
4. Which of the following characterizes ductal carcinoma in situ?
- A. It is less common than lobular carcinoma in situ.
- B. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma.
- C. It is considered a cancer precursor.
- D. Malignant cells have not invaded the stroma; it is considered a cancer precursor and has a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is that ductal carcinoma in situ is characterized by malignant cells that have not invaded the stroma, making it a cancer precursor with a higher risk for invasive cancer compared to lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice A is incorrect because ductal carcinoma in situ is more common than lobular carcinoma in situ. Choice B is incorrect as it only partially describes ductal carcinoma in situ without mentioning its potential for progression to invasive cancer. Choice C is incorrect because it does not capture the complete characteristics of ductal carcinoma in situ, which include the risk for invasive cancer.
5. A 20-year-old college student has presented to the campus medical clinic seeking to begin oral contraceptive therapy. The nurse has recognized the need for adequate health education related to the patient's request. The nurse should emphasize the fact that successful prevention of pregnancy depends primarily on the patient's
- A. current health status.
- B. vigilant adherence to the drug regimen.
- C. knowledge of sexual health.
- D. risk factors for adverse effects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'vigilant adherence to the drug regimen.' When initiating oral contraceptive therapy, the success of preventing pregnancy relies heavily on the patient's commitment to following the prescribed regimen consistently. Compliance with taking the oral contraceptives as directed is crucial for their effectiveness. Choice A, 'current health status,' is not the primary factor for successful prevention of pregnancy with oral contraceptives. Choice C, 'knowledge of sexual health,' while important, is not the primary determinant of contraceptive efficacy. Choice D, 'risk factors for adverse effects,' though relevant for monitoring and managing side effects, is not the primary focus for ensuring contraceptive success.
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